Jesus upheld the authority and applicability of the Law of Moses. In fact He interpreted Moses in a manner which intensified the demands of the Law.
And yet he held during that time strictly to the law of Moses. He even pointed out he did not come to change it, but fulfill it's prophecy's.
First of all. You are arguing a point other than the one I was making. I personally think it is silly and illogical to regard menstruation as a sin, so the presupposition in the OP that morality in the Bible is in any way rational seems to be without basis, regardless of whether or not Jesus held to those arbitrary an illogical rules.
Secondly, you are wrong once again. Jesus didn't hold strictly to Mosaic Law. He touched a leper when He came down from His sermon on the Mount (Matt 8). He and His disciples gathered food on Saturdays, healed people on Saturdays, etc... (Mark 2 and 3) claimed that what went into a man's mouth couldn't defile him, when Mosaic law said it could. (Matt 15) he refused to stone a woman even though Law commanded Him to. (John 8)
I don't know what Bible you have been reading where Jesus is some goody goody rule-following boyscout. In my copy Jesus is a rebel who delights in dismissing the arbitrary and ridiculous Laws of Moses at a whim, and instead cares exclusively about teaching folks to love each other and treat each other the way they want to be treated.
In fact, He says outright that treating each other as we want to be treated is the sum total of all the law and all the prophets. (Matt 7:12)
The four Gospels contain no specific statement by Jesus about homosexuals.
They don't need to. They contain a specific statement about the correct course of action applicable to any and every circumstance:
"So in everything, do to others what you would have them do to you, for this sums up the Law and the Prophets." -Matt 7:12
Just plug in two gay men. Think what they would have each other do to them, and there you have what they should do to each other.
There is however more than enough evidence from Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John alone to conclude that the only form of sexual behavior Jesus endorsed was limited to the married state, period.
I doubt it, but if you give me a chapter and verse, I will be happy to take another look.
According to the Golden Rule, which Jesus claims to summarize the law and the prophets in their entirety, sexual behavior is endorsed when everyone involved is treating each other they way they would want to be treated.
Hebrews 13:4 "Let marriage be held in honor among all, and let the marriage bed be undefiled; but God will judge fornicators and adulterers."
First of all, the book of Hebrews isn't Matthew, Mark, Luke or John, where you claimed such evidence could be found. Nothing Paul or anyone else says is going to trump a directive from the lips of God Himself, issuing a formula encompassing all the law and all the prophets.
Secondly, the marriage bed is undefiled so long as no one treats anyone other than how they would want to be treated in it. Gay sex doesn't necessarily defile a marriage bed.
Jesus made no direct comments about homosexuality, Paul did.
Maybe. That word, Arsonokoitai... I do not think it means what you think it means... /Spanish accent
Regardless, Jesus said that the Golden Rule sums up everything you need to know, so in effect Jesus made a direct comment about every conceivable sin, and maybe even some that are... inconceivable... ;-)
No outrank or over anyone here.
Ok then, do you think that gay men should do to other gay men what they would have gay men do to them? Or do you think Jesus was wrong about that, and that it was actually Paul who had it right?