I already have presented evidence and I already have presented a time frame. The living wage was initiated in 1938 at 25 cents per hour. If you take inflation into account that living minimum wage would be almost exactly where it is today.
lol
You
still haven't specified a time frame; your comments suggest we're going back to the 1930s. That is a
long stretch of time.
Yes, the minimum wage is better than it was in 1938. However, it is far below its 1968 peak, and is at the same level as the mid-1950s. An extra $1.50/hour in terms of purchasing power certainly does not qualify as an "exponential" improvement, especially since it has actually slid since 1968.
However, the idea that the primary (or even first) thing to look at is minimum wage is ludicrous. We have to look at household income for the different income quintiles. Surprise! Almost all of the gains since the 1960s have gone to the top earners:
Surprise #2! This has resulted in significant increases in income inequality in recent years:
You also mentioned that women were joining the workforce -- but you somehow managed to overlook that men have been
leaving the workforce since the 1950s:
As we can see, women started joining the workforce in the 1940s, while men were slowly leaving the workforce. The result was that LFPR rose, peaked around 2000, then gradually fell when women started leaving the workforce. (Women are also paid less than men, anywhere from 20% to 40% during that time frame.) The 2007 recession slightly accelerated this rate, and it started flattening out at the end of the Obama years. For the sake of completeness, here is the total LFPR.
Next, what about benefits? Yes, we can look at Social Security, TANF, Medicare, Medicaid, SNAP, and more. The thing is,
those programs are included in the Census Bureau's measures of household income. (
https://www.census.gov/cps/data/incdef.html) Plus, the federal government took a chainsaw to many programs in the 80s and 90s, notably SS (Reagan cuts) and TANF (Clinton welfare reforms).
So, what can we conclude from the data? As I said in post #248, we can certainly say there was a big leap in the standard of living of the poor (and middle class) in the 1940s, 1950s and 1960s -- which was a period of high taxes on top earners and lower income inequality. However, there have been almost no gains for 95% of the population since the 1970s, and income inequality has shot back up to 1930s levels.
There are tons of issues here -- part-time employment, increased productivity, automation, outsourcing, real estate ownership and value, access to credit, changes in the composition of the cost of living... Short of writing a book, though: The income side of the equation, which shows
50+ years with minimal improvement for the poor and working and middle and even upper middle class, does not support your position.