I believe there are some facts that need to be cleared up in regard to only property owners having the right to vote.
First off the Constitution grants states not Congress the powers to determine the qualifications of voters in a federal election.
Article I, Section 4, allows Congress to "make or alter such [state] Regulations" regarding "the Times, Places and Manner of holding Elections for Senators and Representatives," in other words Congress's power is about "holding Elections" not about who votes, which is the express focus of Section 2.
Both Alexander Hamilton and James Madison believed the two clauses to be independent in this way. Hamilton, in The Federalist No. 60, said of Article I, Section 4, that the national government's "authority would be expressly restricted to the regulation of the times, the places, and the manner of elections. The qualifications of the persons who may choose or may be chosen...are defined and fixed in the Constitution; and are unalterable by the [national] legislature."
In The Federalist No. 52, Madison wrote of Article I, Section 2: "To have left it [the definition of the right of suffrage] open for the occasional regulation of Congress, would have been improper...." Hamilton and Madison believed that generally the state constitutions, and certainly not Congress, would determine who could vote.
So if you want only property owners to have the right to vote, fine......you can push for such a thing in each of your individual states but constitutionally you have no right to force such a mandate at the national level.