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That is an absurd absolutist statement.
Not as absurd as you saying a man who chooses same sex sexual victims is heterosexual.
That is an absurd absolutist statement.
No, that's actually the only error I made. Your errors in this thread are far too numerous to note... starting with a lack of understanding of basic definitions. You can't discuss a topic if you don't understand the basics of that topic... and in this case, you don't.
Not as absurd as you saying a man who chooses same sex sexual victims is heterosexual.
You do not prove that by asserting it.
Your only argument is the highly counter intuitive one that heterosexual men are more likely to abuse boys than are homosexual men.
George Orwell wrote, “There are some ideas so absurd that only an intellectual could believe them.” I am not sure if I would call you an intellectual. Nevertheless, there are some social scientists who make assertions as absurd as you have about homosexuals in order to advance their academic careers. In academia there seems to be a market for that kind of nonsense.
The social sciences lack a commonly agreed upon way of separating truth from falsehood. Anyone who writes well and who tells a large number of people what they want to believe will be considered to be an oracle.
Nevertheless, I can think of a number of ways to prove, or at least provide strong evidence, that heterosexual men rarely abuse boys. Some of them abuse girls, but not boys.
Incorrect. Being attracted to teenage boys is not a sexual orientation. He was heterosexual who molested, assaulted, and murdered teenage boys. His dealings with them were related to his personality disorders and other mental illnesses, NOT sexual orientation.
Thank you. :happy:
At least one person has been following my debate with CaptainCourtesy who can think clearly.
Do you really believe that, or are you just saying it because it makes you feel good about yourself?
I am sure he had personality disorders. In addition, he was just plane evil, and deserved to suffer for his crimes. Nevertheless, if he was a heterosexual he would have have "molested, assaulted, and murdered teenage" girls.
Which is accurate. You have offered nothing either logically or factually to refute that. You don't understand basic definitions of the argument, which is a big reason why your argument fails.
In your own words explain the difference between deductive logic and inductive logic. When you are finished I will. Then we will see who has a better understanding of logic.
Ah, no. You haven't shown any interest in becoming educated on this topic. I have no reason to try to educate you on logic, either.
Had he only killed the boys, the argument would at least still be consistent. But, we know for a fact that he had sex with these boys before (and maybe even after) killing them. Therefore it is physically impossible for him to have been heterosexual.
It comes with a price. Ridicule and ad hom about my "ignorance" seems to be the norm when I go there here.
He was attracted to people of the opposite sex. He molested people of the same sex. There. Now you have been educated on the difference. Again.
Not as absurd as you saying a man who chooses same sex sexual victims is heterosexual.
You do not prove that by asserting it.
Your only argument is the highly counter intuitive one that heterosexual men are more likely to abuse boys than are homosexual men.
George Orwell wrote, “There are some ideas so absurd that only an intellectual could believe them.” I am not sure if I would call you an intellectual. Nevertheless, there are some social scientists who make assertions as absurd as you have about homosexuals in order to advance their academic careers. In academia there seems to be a market for that kind of nonsense.
There are plenty of those with anti-gay bias who make uneducated presentations such as yours. They ignore information and fact just to present their agenda. Doesn't matter to them who wrong what they say is. It's your agenda that matters.
The social sciences lack a commonly agreed upon way of separating truth from falsehood. Anyone who writes well and who tells a large number of people what they want to believe will be considered to be an oracle.
Nevertheless, I can think of a number of ways to prove, or at least provide strong evidence, that heterosexual men rarely abuse boys. Some of them abuse girls, but not boys.
lol...and here I thought this thread would focus on nothing more absurd than the trend that any movie about AIDS drugs, transexuals or slavery is guaranteed to win multiple Oscars. But, this idea that someone who sexually abuses people of the same sex is heterosexual takes the cake.
Do you really believe that, or are you just saying it because it makes you feel good about yourself?
I am sure he had personality disorders. In addition, he was just plane evil, and deserved to suffer for his crimes. Nevertheless, if he was a heterosexual he would have have "molested, assaulted, and murdered teenage" girls.
It comes with a price. Ridicule and ad hom about my "ignorance" seems to be the norm when I go there here.
Had he only killed the boys, the argument would at least still be consistent. But, we know for a fact that he had sex with these boys before (and maybe even after) killing them. Therefore it is physically impossible for him to have been heterosexual.
Any test that claims to show that known sex abusers of boys are not homosexuals or bisexuals is invalid on the face of it. One might as well try to measure IQ by whether or not a person has an intelligent looking face.
CaptainCourtney claims that I am ignorant of logic. Nevertheless, his arguments consist of nothing but logical fallacies.
For men sex is often not the expression of affection, but the impulse of an appetite. Nevertheless, exploitative heterosexuals direct their appetites at females. Exploitative homosexuals direct their appetites at males.
Male heterosexuals and male homosexuals nearly always prefer young sex partners. This can be easily seen by looking at pictures at heterosexual and homosexual pornography that attracts a male audience.
The difference between a homosexual man who is attracted to eighteen year old boys and a homosexual man who is attracted to fourteen year old boys is one of degree rather than kind. It is the same with heterosexual men who are attracted to eighteen year old girls and fourteen year old girls. The legal system recognizes age of consent because younger people are more likely to be emotionally damaged by having sex with men.
I already demonstrated how you were wrong about that. And this is not the first time you have shown your ignorance on this topic and I have needed to correct you. You still don't understand the difference between sexual orientation and sexual behavior.
Incorrect. Tell us the difference between sexual orientation and sexual behavior.
Sometimes your arguments and the information you present approach the absurd. If, I go out every Friday to pick up guys and have sex with them, I am not heterosexual, no matter how many female sex partners I may have on the other six days of the week.It's an accurate description of how you post. You refuse to educate yourself on this issue, even when facts are spoonfed to you. I will keep pointing this out until you choose to learn why things are the way they are.
Incorrect. Tell us the difference between sexual orientation and sexual behavior.
Explain the difference between sexual orientation and sexual behavior. Btw... molestation is an act of aggression, power and opportunity. I find it interesting that you are discussing a topic that you know so little about.