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Was the Mueller Investigation deliberately extended past the mid-terms to effect the election?

Integrityrespec

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It is important to find out when the Mueller investigation knew there was no collusion and no proof of obstruction. Was the investigation deliberately keep active up to and beyond the mid-term elections to have an effect on the election outcomes?
 
It is important to find out when the Mueller investigation knew there was no collusion and no proof of obstruction. Was the investigation deliberately keep active up to and beyond the mid-term elections to have an effect on the election outcomes?

It is speculated that Mueller knew there was no collusion before August 2017. At that time, Mueller asked for further guidance and Rosenstein sent Mueller a letter authorizing Mueller to pursue other issues in his investigation. Much of the letter is redacted.

You can read that letter here: DOJ Letter From Rosenstein To Mueller | Shift Frequency

I'm thinking, if that letter is ever released in full, we will find that Rosenstein gave Mueller permission to investigate allegations of obstruction of justice at that time.

I've seen nothing that indicates when Mueller had made his decisions regarding obstruction. It is certainly possible that he extended his investigation as long as possible...if not to influence the mid-terms (keep in mind that people were STILL talking about collusion then)...but to provide cover for corrupt Obama admin pukes and their actions.

In any case, that cover is now gone.
 
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It is important to find out when the Mueller investigation knew there was no collusion and no proof of obstruction. Was the investigation deliberately keep active up to and beyond the mid-term elections to have an effect on the election outcomes?

Of course. The lifelong Republican Mueller was part of a vast conspiracy to make sure Democrats won. That's the only possible explanation.
 
It is important to find out when the Mueller investigation knew there was no collusion and no proof of obstruction. Was the investigation deliberately keep active up to and beyond the mid-term elections to have an effect on the election outcomes?

No. I think Mueller himself is reputable and it was HIS investigation. But, if you actually think that, how do you think it effected the elections? Both sides could actually claim it effected the midterms.
 
Of course. The lifelong Republican Mueller was part of a vast conspiracy to make sure Democrats won. That's the only possible explanation.

Ever heard the term, "never Trumper" or "deep state"? I bet you don't believe those exist, but you do believe Trump and his people colluded with a foreign power and the dossier was legit. None are so blind as those who will not see.
 
Ever heard the term, "never Trumper" or "deep state"? I bet you don't believe those exist, but you do believe Trump and his people colluded with a foreign power and the dossier was legit. None are so blind as those who will not see.

I didn't say I believed there was collusion. You put those words in my mouth. Never Trumpers exist, but the deep state is nothing more than Trump's favorite conspiracy theory. You, of course, lap it up without question.
 
Was the Mueller Investigation deliberately extended past the mid-terms to effect the election?
  1. No.
  2. Aside:
    Try to be mindful of the denotational differences between "affect" and "effect." If nothing else, at least avail yourself of the grey squiggle (the title question contains two such instances: "mid-terms" [sic] and "effect") web software places beneath words the software "thinks" one may have misused. (You may also want to review hyphenation rules.)

    One's on one's own for grammar and diction, but for spelling, the GUI will cure most ills, which, for me, at least, is a good thing because my spelling is worse now than it was when I was a student.

    ...And, yes, I know what you were trying to communicate; I'm merely offering a suggestion. Too, I'm aware folks who know the difference/rules yet make mistakes.
 
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