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Didn't this argument pretty much go out the window with the ratification of the 14th Amendment, though?
"No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States." If the Bill of Rights enumerates privileges and immunities that can't be denied to us by the Federal Government, then how can a State Government then go about denying those same privileges and immunities without blatantly disregarding the language of the 14th Amendment?
Apparently many justices (over the period of many decades) finally agreed that this is the case.
But it doesn't appear that it was obvious to them for a very long time. So I still am not sure that it's not the Supreme Court making it up as they went.
But at least you guys pointed out something other than the Supremacy Clause.