Works "reasonably well" now ?
To remind you:
I said that Representative Democracy works well in any size of government
You said "
I disagree"
I then challenged you answer "
Which city/state/country was too big or too small for Representative Democracy to function?"
Again you
evade questions when cornered
How do you know that the drafters of the US Constitution indented regarding slavery?
You make another claim but cannot back this up.
The fact is that a large minority in the USA were held in servitude for decades - despite the existence of the Constitution.
Even after the abolition of slavery, why was a Civil Rights movement necessary ?
Why was a minority segment of the US citizenry oppressed and discriminated against when they had the protection of the Constitution ?
So saying that the Constitution protects the minority against the majority is factually and obviously wrong.
I am talking about Japanese-Americans. That is to say
US citizens. Do you really not know anything about what happened ???
Germany declared war on the USA did you know that ? How many German-Americans were rounded up and incarcerated ?
Was the rounding up of US citizens with Japanese heritage an example of mob rule ?
They ended
WELL AFTER the establishment of the US Constitution. Or do you have trouble remembering dates from your high school history class?
How did the "trail of tears" happen...or the Sandcreek and Wounded Knee massacres happen when the US Constitution existed to prevent the oppression of minorities?
Have you even heard of these events ? Were they yet more examples of mob rule prevailing in a republic ?
Again this is not to damn the USA, many countries have episodes they'd prefer to forget but making ignorant comments that democracies produce mob rule and the oppression of minorities in republics is somehow impossible is just stupid and naive.
As we have seen, it is virtually impossible to exercise clear and concise laws - especially if the language used dates back to the 18th century
If you want evidence of this, ask yourself why there are SC rulings with a 5:4 split.
If the language was clear, why are not all SC ruling 9:0 ?
The people don't need politicians to listen to them if they are mobilized and have the power to un-elect them.
The recent mid-term elections had the HIGHEST voter turn out in more than a century...but it was still less than 50% !!!!!
https://www.marketwatch.com/story/m...fused-with-australia-any-time-soon-2018-11-21
Studies show that the people least likely to vote are the lower middle/working class and the poor....those most likely to vote are the wealthy
This is why the USA elects right wing politicians
You want to discuss political terms without considering the rest of the world...except of course the "mob rule" allegedly practiced in ancient Greece ?
Only what happens in the USA is important - you really are a caricature "little american"
You're a bit like saying that you're only interested in scientific experiments performed in the USA....scientific experiments in the rest-of-the-world that contradict and disprove one done in the USA are of no interest.
You cannot argue with someone who willfully dons blinkers to protect himself from the truth.