I get your assertion that some people are just going to hate transpeople and bitch about them regardless. But even if some or even most of the people against transwomen competing with bio women are just asshole transphobes, it doesn't make them necessarily wrong when they say the transwoman has a decided biological advantage.
Indeed they do have a point.
Of course someone who is born into socioeconomic circumstances which result in them being malnourished as a child will also be at a competitive disadvantage when competing against someone else who wasn't (even if their genetic makeup was identical).
Therefore the only "rational" solution is to divide all competitive sports into
- a male division and a female division; then further divide those divisions into
- weight/height classes; then further divide those classes into
- socioeconomic background classes; then further divide those classes into
- cultural classes.
That would mean that all competitions would be between people who were roughly equal.
That would then also mean that the #1 person in the "Inuit, poverty background, 100 - 125#, female, class" would be "just as good" as the #1 person in the "Caucasian, incredibly wealthy background, 225 - 250#, male, class".
Right?
Out of sheer curiosity, and please don't think I'm saying this is something that is currently happening, just a hypothetical, if a man who has been training in an athletic sport that requires strength and speed figures out/decides that he is really a transwoman and starts transitioning and 3 months later starts competing against bio women, does that person have an advantage?
If you are talking about someone deliberately "changing gender" in order to make money out of sports, then I seriously doubt that it has happened. In fact, if that was the person's motivation for transitioning in the first place, I rather suspect that no (ethical) medical personnel would assist them to do so. (That, of course, doesn't mean that they might be able to find some UNethical medical personnel who would be willing to do so.)
However, you have raised an interesting question (and one that I really do not know the answer to) which is
On the assumption that transitioning from male to female DOES provide a competitive advantage at the time of transition, does the requisite medication regime mean that that competitive advantage would, over time, decrease to (more or less) next to nothing?