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Question for people who believe being gay to be wrong

Oooookay. You gotta stop making unsubstantiated claims. First off, there is long history of same sex unions. They have been occurring since ancient times, that means there is a long history. They have also occurred in many parts of the world, and that means they have been widespread.

I think you are exsagerating. I am going to use wiki because I don't feel like taking forever as I am going to the movies.

Various types of same-sex marriages have existed,[42] ranging from informal, unsanctioned relationships to highly ritualized unions.[43]

In the southern Chinese province of Fujian, through the Ming dynasty period, females would bind themselves in contracts to younger females in elaborate ceremonies.[citation needed] Males also entered similar arrangements. This type of arrangement was also similar in ancient European history.[44]

An example of egalitarian male domestic partnership from the early Zhou Dynasty period of China is recorded in the story of Pan Zhang & Wang Zhongxian. While the relationship was clearly approved by the wider community, and was compared to heterosexual marriage, it did not involve a religious ceremony binding the couple.[45]


The first needs a citation. Usually this means it is purely specualtion. The Zhou Dynasty of China was just one story and one community.

It is just your claims are over the top a hyped, or so they seem.

Second, just because Greece did not call such unions "marriage" does not mean they were not recognized by the government.

It was not recognized by Greek law the same as Rome.

Third, just because Rome first started calling such unions "marriage" does not mean a majority of them occurred in Rome. Same sex marriages occurred in all sorts of places before Christinatiy invaded and with varying degrees of acceptance.

It should be noted, however, that conubium existed only between a civis Romanus and a civis Romana (that is, between a male Roman citizen and a female Roman citzen), so that a so-called "marriage" between two Roman males (or with a slave) would have no legal standing in Roman law (apart, presumably, from the arbitrary will of the emperor in the two aforementioned cases).

In 1552, Francisco Lopez de Gomara reported in History of the Indies that men were marrying other men.

In 1569, Friar Gaspar de Cruz claimed natural disasters in China were God’s punishment for its people's acceptance of same-sex marriages.

In 1576, it was reported in History of the Province of Santa Cruz describes indigenous women in Brazil who formed lesbian marriages.

In the 1600s, the Poet Li Yu wrote about same-sex marriage ceremonies in Fujian and southern China.

And on and on.

Are you going to list sources?

Christianity has been at war with same sex marriage since the 3rd century and in just about every part of the world.

Again, this has nothing to do with my argument or comment. So what?
 
I imagine southern folks were worried that if Blacks were allowed to marry whites that all churches would be forced to marry mixed couples. We know that
s not the case today. In fact churches reserve the right not to marry any couple they don't want to, and even make a marriage service conditional upon pre-marital counseling, etc.

Exactly my point. It is not rational to believe that churches would ever be forced to perform marriages between two men or two women if they don't want to be it is unconstitutional and it has never happened in the past, despite irrational fears that it would.

Now, I'm not saying that it is completely impossible, but only because I am a person that believes that pretty much anything is possible. It is, however, extremely improbable. It would certainly piss off a lot of people, and not just those who are currently against SSM.
 
The first needs a citation. Usually this means it is purely specualtion. The Zhou Dynasty of China was just one story and one community.

And how is that relevant to my claims given that I'm not using wiki, but citing old manuscripts?

It is just your claims are over the top a hyped, or so they seem.

Based on what? Your wikipedia derived knowledge of the subject?

It was not recognized by Greek law the same as Rome.

You have yet to provide any source to support that assertion. In fact, you haven't even provided any evidence of how Greek or Roman societies recognized marriage in law.

Are you going to list sources?

I listed the manuscripts and writers! Did you even read it? If you aren't going to even read my sources, and then you turn around and ask for my sources, then there isn't any point in debating with you.

I'm right on this topic. Same sex marriage has existed world wide and has a long history.
 
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And how is that relevant to my claims given that I'm not using wiki, but citing old manuscripts?

Your not using anything as far as I can tell. No source on anything in this line anyway.

Based on what? Your wikipedia derived knowledge of the subject?

No. Based on my general knowledge. I went to college and took history as well. Even I admit knowledge has changed, but information we did not have then on similar things have not been reveled in the world of anthropology.

You have yet to provide any source to support that assertion. In fact, you haven't even provided any evidence of how Greek or Roman societies recognized marriage in law.

Wiki so far has pretty much backed up everything I said. And if you look in the credits below you can see the source material for the article. It is quite large.

So where is your source material?

I listed the manuscripts and writers! Did you even read it? If you aren't going to even read my sources, and then you turn around and ask for my sources, then there isn't any point in debating with you.

In 1552, Francisco Lopez de Gomara reported in History of the Indies that men were marrying other men.:

Whether through the desire to aggrandize his patron, or through relying on the firsthand information which the latter gave him (Gómara was never in America) or from malice, or for some other reason Gómara fell into serious errors and in many instances sinned gravely against historical truth. It was perhaps for this reason that Prince Philip (afterwards Philip II of Spain), in a decree issued at Valladolid on November 17, 1553, ordered all the copies of his work that could be found to be gathered in and imposed a penalty of 200,000 maravedis on anyone who should reprint it.

In 1569, Friar Gaspar de Cruz claimed natural disasters in China were God’s punishment for its people's acceptance of same-sex marriages.

Just a date and a name? No mention of this comment in any biography I can find. You want to point me to one?

In 1576, it was reported in History of the Province of Santa Cruz describes indigenous women in Brazil who formed lesbian marriages.

No such book from 1576 online in any search. No authors name so it could be anything.

Want to point me to a source?

So far you have listed sources with no book or manuscript name or no author. You mite as well tell me what hack anti Christian site you got it from? You are obviously afraid to list it.

I'm right on this topic. Same sex marriage has existed world wide and has a long history.

Well so far the actual evidence I posted says no. The evidence you posted says, nothing yet as it is evidence of nothing. One liar, and the rest don't have names or even a manuscript as you claimed.
 

The first book (from what I can tell) has nothing to do with the ancient history. Good modern history though. The second book is not a source for the information you presented. As far as I can tell anyway.

The second book however seemed very interesting. He is very clear about archeology on this subject being available is almost nonexistent. Which leads me to believe he is credible. He also at this point has a PhD. from Harvard.

The second book (from what I could read for free) backs up the time claim etc. On that I don't disagree with you.

You make it sound like world wide and a cultural norm (I know you did not say or imply that.) It just sounds that way.
 
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Shakespeare is not Gods word.

Says you.

If you only take into account 10% of the story like you do with the Bible I would agree.

Ok. But if I t5ake into account the whole story I have to believe in faeries? Where are you going with this?

Why would I expect my faith to give me better incite?

I don't know. Why do you? It obviously doesn't.

I have not read the Bible cover to cover in what, 25 years? You forget things and my mistake was not to look it up. I assumed incorrectly.

I have read it cover to cover rather more recently. You somehow seem to think that I am not qualified to tell you what it says unless I believe it to be infallible though. I don't really get your logic there.

You were not preaching, you corrected my mistake and told me in no uncertain terms I need to admit it. In the end it was pretty irrelevant to the subject at hand.

I was telling you what it says in the Bible. That is generally regarded as 'preaching.'


Reading about someone in a book doesn't count as a 'personal relationship.' Otherwise I have a personal relationship with Elvis.

and here is your mistake....

The Golden Rule: So in everything, do to others what you would have them do to you, for this sums up the Law and the Prophets. -Matt 7:12

Your definition of the golden rule: According to the Golden Rule, which Jesus claims to summarize the law and the prophets in their entirety, sexual behavior is endorsed when everyone involved is treating each other they way they would want to be treated.

Let's see how that works out...

according to my pal Jesus, anything that doesn't have anything to do with treating each other with love, kindness and mercy isn't the law or the prophets. Ergo, this alleged "sin" isn't really a sin at all. It's more of a social taboo. - Panache

Not seeing the mistake yet...

I guess a loving incestuous couple is just a social taboo?

Correct. Easily proven Biblically. Adam and Eve were designed to give birth to the entire human race. Their children were forced to have incestuous relationships with each other in order to be fruitful and multiply as they were commanded to do.

Therefore, loving incestuous relationship were inarguably part of God's original design.

Two couples lovingly wife swapping is not adultery even though Jesus said in no uncertain terms that it is a sin regardless.

Show me the verse where Jesus specifically talks about two couples lovingly wife swapping.

Adultery does not mean "sex outside of marriage" it means "betraying one's spouse." It is the betrayal that is sinful in adultery, not the sex. If there is no betrayal, there is no adultery.

I present as evidence, exhibit A: King David didn't sin when he bedded his concubines, because it was not a betrayal. His only sin was in the matter of Uriah the Hittite, which was a betrayal.

"For David had done what was right in the eyes of the LORD and had not failed to keep any of the LORD's commands all the days of his life--except in the case of Uriah the Hittite." - 1 Kings 15:5

This is why your definition does not work. It is directly opposed to the words of Christ, period.

Alright, show me where Jesus specifically says that incest is immoral. Show me where Jesus specifically says that loving and consensual wife swapping is immoral.

Otherwise just admit that you were wrong. Again. :cool:

Maybe you should accept God at his word and get it right,

I did. In fact, as you can see, I back my claims up with specific examples in the Bible. It would be nice to see you do the same.

instead of trying to weasel around it like the Pharisees.

You misunderstand the Pharisees completely. They didn't try to weasel around the rules. They destroyed the spirit of the rules by being anal about the details, just as you are trying to do.

The spirit of the Law is "Love each other." That is the entire spirit of every single law. Jesus said so in Matt 22. Paul said so in Romans 13 and again in Galatians 5. You are trying to weasel around that spirit by twisting words around to fit your homophobic agenda.

PS: Jesus is taking about love, not be confused with sex.

Yeah. He was talking about love. He wasn't talking about arbitrary and irrational rules that don't make any sense. Love is the spirit of every Law, so trying to twist laws around into something that has nothing to do with love is downright blasphemous.
 
Says you.

Ok. But if I t5ake into account the whole story I have to believe in faeries? Where are you going with this?

It ia a well known work of fiction. Logic dictates your answer is disingenuous.

I don't know. Why do you? It obviously doesn't.

Now you claim to be a mind reader?

I have read it cover to cover rather more recently. You somehow seem to think that I am not qualified to tell you what it says unless I believe it to be infallible though. I don't really get your logic there.

You seem to be saying that you dislike the Old Testament laws; but instead that you like the sublime and winsome teachings of Jesus - especially the "golden rule".

But Jesus hasn't left that option open to anyone! The fact is that if you dislike the law of God, then you're REALLY going to hate the "golden rule" of Jesus, once you understand it. Because Jesus Himself says that it is the summation and essence of the law of God! The problem isn't that you prefer to think about "love". The problem is that you don't seem to love God, who is a God of great love, nor understand His law - which is summed up in the command to love our neighbor as ourself.

Now this leads us to the question of how do you/we obey this command? Let me suggest that one of the most important mistakes we could make is to forget that the command to love our neighbor as ourselves is not meant to be understood as the first great command. It is the second; and it can only be obeyed as we obey the first command first.

When obeying Jesus' command toward our treatment of our neighbor, we don't start with looking at our neighbor; and we certainly don't start with looking at ourselves. Instead, we look to God.

And it's that kind of love that fulfills the requirements of the law of God with respect to our treatment of others. Paul whom you would just throw out agrees In Romans 13, Paul wrote;

Owe no one anything except to love one another, for he who loves another has fulfilled the law. For the commandments, "You shall not commit adultery," "You shall not murder," "You shall not steal," "You shall not bear false witness," "You shall not covet," and if there is any other commandment, are all summed up in this saying, namely, "You shall love your neighbor as yourself." Love does no harm to a neighbor; therefore love is the fulfillment of the law (Rom. 13:8-10).

I was telling you what it says in the Bible. That is generally regarded as 'preaching.'

No. You are telling me what you think (incorrectly) what one part of the Bible says.

Reading about someone in a book doesn't count as a 'personal relationship.' Otherwise I have a personal relationship with Elvis.

Assuming or mind reading again?

Not seeing the mistake yet...

Correct. Easily proven Biblically. Adam and Eve were designed to give birth to the entire human race. Their children were forced to have incestuous relationships with each other in order to be fruitful and multiply as they were commanded to do.

Therefore, loving incestuous relationship were inarguably part of God's original design.

Not true. Fact is we don't know as the Bible is not clear on whether God created people after Adam and Eve. They were the first, not necessarily the last as God says "Go fourth and replenish the earth, not populate.

We also know Cain went into the land of Nod, to find a wife. This insinuates a larger population.

Genesis does not give scientific type details on time line or any real specifics. So anything along that line is purely assumption.

So stating what you said as fact does not really work.

We know in the Mosaic law it was banned. So we can at least assume God does not like it.

Show me the verse where Jesus specifically talks about two couples lovingly wife swapping.

Matthew 5:27-30b"You have heard that it was said, 'You shall not commit adultery;' but I tell you that everyone who gazes at a woman to lust after her has committed adultery with her already in his heart. If your right eye causes you to stumble, pluck it out and throw it away from you. For it is more profitable for you that one of your members should perish, than for your whole body to be cast into Gehenna. If your right hand causes you to stumble, cut it off, and throw it away from you. For it is more profitable for you that one of your members should perish, than for your whole body to be cast into Gehenna.

Adultery:[uh-duhl-tuh-ree] Show IPA
–noun, plural -ter·ies.
voluntary sexual intercourse between a married person and someone other than his or her lawful spouse. - Adultery | Define Adultery at Dictionary.com

Adultery
n., pl., -ies.
Voluntary sexual intercourse between a married person and a partner other than the lawful spouse.
- adultery: West's Encyclopedia of American Law (Full Article) from Answers.com

Mal. 2:14 "The Lord has been a witness between you and the wife of your youth, against whom you have dealt treacherously, though she is your companion and your wife by covenant." Those who deal treacherously with their spouse are guilty of breaking a covenant relationship. This is "adultery."

But, what exactly is adultery, and just how are we to understand this concept from a biblical point of view? "That would seem to be about as obvious a question as a person could ask. Whether he has done extensive studies or not, virtually everyone knows that adultery is sexual activity between a married person and someone other than his (or her) lawful spouse. ... It unquestionably has to do with the illicit sexual conduct of a married person" (Wayne Jackson, "What Is Adultery?" -- an article that appeared in The Christian Polemic, May, 2001). Our English dictionaries generally agree with this assessment by Bro. Jackson, defining the word adultery as "sexual intercourse between a married person and someone other than their spouse." Thus, by this definition, adultery is "cheating on one's lawful mate; sexual misconduct with another." There is no denying that such a view of the concept of adultery is found within the pages of the inspired Scriptures." - Biblical View of Adultery

Adultery does not mean "sex outside of marriage" it means "betraying one's spouse." It is the betrayal that is sinful in adultery, not the sex. If there is no betrayal, there is no adultery.

You are trying to make the definition fit something it does not.

I present as evidence, exhibit A: King David didn't sin when he bedded his concubines, because it was not a betrayal. His only sin was in the matter of Uriah the Hittite, which was a betrayal.

"For David had done what was right in the eyes of the LORD and had not failed to keep any of the LORD's commands all the days of his life--except in the case of Uriah the Hittite." - 1 Kings 15:5

Wow, leaving out quite a bit aren't you?

Not going into to much detail but let's see what happened to his concubines after he was forgiven by God:

II Sam. 20:3 "And David came to his house at Jerusalem; and the king took the ten women his concubines, whom he had left to keep the house, and put them in ward, and fed them, but went not in unto them. So they were shut up unto the day of their death, living in widowhood"

Looks like he new it was wrong from the beginning. After he repented, he never went to them again. That pretty much sums it up.

Alright, show me where Jesus specifically says that incest is immoral. Show me where Jesus specifically says that loving and consensual wife swapping is immoral.

Otherwise just admit that you were wrong. Again. :cool:

He did not have to, it is stated many time in the Bible. We know even as regular men it's wrong.

For you to want to legitimize incest is not a good thing.

I did. In fact, as you can see, I back my claims up with specific examples in the Bible. It would be nice to see you do the same.

I have done the same thing. The difference is I do not have redefine words to get my meaning across. ;)

You misunderstand the Pharisees completely. They didn't try to weasel around the rules. They destroyed the spirit of the rules by being anal about the details, just as you are trying to do.

The spirit of the Law is "Love each other." That is the entire spirit of every single law. Jesus said so in Matt 22. Paul said so in Romans 13 and again in Galatians 5. You are trying to weasel around that spirit by twisting words around to fit your homophobic agenda.

I suggest you read above more closely. Accusing me of being homophobic is also a sin as you are lying.

Now you use Paul for just this and leave the rest?

Yeah. He was talking about love. He wasn't talking about arbitrary and irrational rules that don't make any sense. Love is the spirit of every Law, so trying to twist laws around into something that has nothing to do with love is downright blasphemous.

I am twisting nothing. We can see your changing of words above in my response.
 
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It ia a well known work of fiction. Logic dictates your answer is disingenuous.

Logic also dictates that whether Shakespeare was God or not has nothing to do with my ability to read and comprehend His plays.

Now you claim to be a mind reader?

No. You implied that my faith, or lack thereof is somehow relevant to my ability to discuss the content of the Bible.

"So says the non-Christian" - Blackdog

No mind reading required.


You seem to be saying that you dislike the Old Testament laws; but instead that you like the sublime and winsome teachings of Jesus - especially the "golden rule".

It would seem that way.

But Jesus hasn't left that option open to anyone!

Yes He has.

The fact is that if you dislike the law of God, then you're REALLY going to hate the "golden rule" of Jesus, once you understand it.

I don't dislike the Law of God, I dislike the law of Moses.

Because Jesus Himself says that it is the summation and essence of the law of God!

Right, and since "Don't menstruate" cannot be summed up by the Golden Rule, and "don't eat bacon" cannot be summed up by the Golden Rule, and "Don't wear cotton/polyester blend tee-shirts" cannot be summed up by the Golden Rule, the law of Moses was clearly not God's Law. You were deceived. You thought it was God's Law, but the lying pen of the scribes had rendered it falsely. (Jeremiah 8:8) Fortunately Jesus came along to set the record straight. Unfortunately, not everyone was paying attention.

The problem isn't that you prefer to think about "love". The problem is that you don't seem to love God, who is a God of great love, nor understand His law - which is summed up in the command to love our neighbor as ourself.

How does loving our neighbor as ourself require that we not menstruate?

Now this leads us to the question of how do you/we obey this command? Let me suggest that one of the most important mistakes we could make is to forget that the command to love our neighbor as ourselves is not meant to be understood as the first great command. It is the second; and it can only be obeyed as we obey the first command first.

The two laws are actually one and the same. One cannot be accomplished without the other, for the simple fact that God is love. Anyone who loves their neighbor is indwelt with the Holy Spirit and His love is made complete in us. (1 John 4:12)

When obeying Jesus' command toward our treatment of our neighbor, we don't start with looking at our neighbor; and we certainly don't start with looking at ourselves. Instead, we look to God.

Ok, we look to God, and then He tells us to look to our neighbor. Do you have a point here?

And it's that kind of love that fulfills the requirements of the law of God with respect to our treatment of others. Paul whom you would just throw out agrees In Romans 13, Paul wrote;

Owe no one anything except to love one another, for he who loves another has fulfilled the law. For the commandments, "You shall not commit adultery," "You shall not murder," "You shall not steal," "You shall not bear false witness," "You shall not covet," and if there is any other commandment, are all summed up in this saying, namely, "You shall love your neighbor as yourself." Love does no harm to a neighbor; therefore love is the fulfillment of the law (Rom. 13:8-10).

Ok, I get not stealing from people you love. I get not murdering people you love, and I get not bearing false witness against people you love. Now explain to me about how love relates to not menstruating.

No. You are telling me what you think (incorrectly) what one part of the Bible says.

Wait, now you think I was incorrect about the old testament saying that menstruation was a sin? We can look at it again if you like. It hasn't changed.

Assuming or mind reading again?

Logical inference. You claimed that we only know about God from the Bible, which clearly implies that you don't know about Him from personal experience.

Not true. Fact is we don't know as the Bible is not clear on whether God created people after Adam and Eve. They were the first, not necessarily the last as God says "Go fourth and replenish the earth, not populate.

We also know Cain went into the land of Nod, to find a wife. This insinuates a larger population.

Genesis does not give scientific type details on time line or any real specifics. So anything along that line is purely assumption.

So stating what you said as fact does not really work.

Bible knowledge fail again.

"And Adam called his wife's name Eve; because she was the mother of all living." -Genesis 3:20

Eve was the mother of all humanity according to the Bible.

We know in the Mosaic law it was banned. So we can at least assume God does not like it.

By that reasoning, God doesn't like bacon or shrimp or mixed fabrics either. Is the Old Covenant still in effect or isn't it?

Matthew 5:27-30b"You have heard that it was said, 'You shall not commit adultery;' but I tell you that everyone who gazes at a woman to lust after her has committed adultery with her already in his heart. If your right eye causes you to stumble, pluck it out and throw it away from you. For it is more profitable for you that one of your members should perish, than for your whole body to be cast into Gehenna. If your right hand causes you to stumble, cut it off, and throw it away from you. For it is more profitable for you that one of your members should perish, than for your whole body to be cast into Gehenna.

Betraying your spouse, even in your heart, is a betrayal. You don't betray people you love. You don't want people to betray you. This all fits my paradigm to a tea, so why are you acting like it somehow proves your point?

Adultery:[uh-duhl-tuh-ree] Show IPA
–noun, plural -ter·ies.
voluntary sexual intercourse between a married person and someone other than his or her lawful spouse. - Adultery | Define Adultery at Dictionary.com

Adultery
n., pl., -ies.
Voluntary sexual intercourse between a married person and a partner other than the lawful spouse.
- adultery: West's Encyclopedia of American Law (Full Article) from Answers.com

Modern English definitions are about as relevant here as peach cobbler.

Mal. 2:14 "The Lord has been a witness between you and the wife of your youth, against whom you have dealt treacherously, though she is your companion and your wife by covenant." Those who deal treacherously with their spouse are guilty of breaking a covenant relationship. This is "adultery."

Wow. Could you have proven my point any better? Are you unfamiliar with the concept of treachery? It means betrayal. You found the definition of adultery in the Bible and surprise surprise it means exactly what I said it means. Yet somehow you think you are proving me wrong my saying that adultery means dealing treacherously with your spouse.

But, what exactly is adultery, and just how are we to understand this concept from a biblical point of view? "That would seem to be about as obvious a question as a person could ask. Whether he has done extensive studies or not, virtually everyone knows that adultery is sexual activity between a married person and someone other than his (or her) lawful spouse. ... It unquestionably has to do with the illicit sexual conduct of a married person" (Wayne Jackson, "What Is Adultery?" -- an article that appeared in The Christian Polemic, May, 2001). Our English dictionaries generally agree with this assessment by Bro. Jackson, defining the word adultery as "sexual intercourse between a married person and someone other than their spouse." Thus, by this definition, adultery is "cheating on one's lawful mate; sexual misconduct with another." There is no denying that such a view of the concept of adultery is found within the pages of the inspired Scriptures." - Biblical View of Adultery

Again, this is entirely correct for the majority of couples, who have an expectation of monogamy. "Cheating" implicitly means betrayal. The word itself means "breaking the agreed upon rules" Consensual swinging isn't cheating, by virtue of it being consensual, and all the partners being aware of the arrangement. They agree upon a different set of rules then most, and as long as they abide by those rules, they aren't cheating, therefore no sexual misconduct has taken place.

Besides of which, Wayne Jackson is hardly more of an expert on the Biblical definition of adultery than the Bible itself, and according to the Bible, adultery means "dealing treacherously with one's spouse."

You are trying to make the definition fit something it does not.

No, my definition is supported by scripture. As a wise man once posted on a debate forum:

"Mal. 2:14 "The Lord has been a witness between you and the wife of your youth, against whom you have dealt treacherously, though she is your companion and your wife by covenant." Those who deal treacherously with their spouse are guilty of breaking a covenant relationship. This is "adultery."

Wow, leaving out quite a bit aren't you?

Not going into to much detail but let's see what happened to his concubines after he was forgiven by God:

II Sam. 20:3 "And David came to his house at Jerusalem; and the king took the ten women his concubines, whom he had left to keep the house, and put them in ward, and fed them, but went not in unto them. So they were shut up unto the day of their death, living in widowhood"

Looks like he new it was wrong from the beginning. After he repented, he never went to them again. That pretty much sums it up.

Ok. So he never went to them again. Doesn't change the fact that he went to them in the first place. Or that he had numerous wives. None of which was a sin.

He did not have to, it is stated many time in the Bible. We know even as regular men it's wrong.

It's stated in the Old Testament. A covenant with the ancient tribes of Israel that has no bearing on us today.

For you to want to legitimize incest is not a good thing.

Yes it is.

I have done the same thing. The difference is I do not have redefine words to get my meaning across. ;)

Yes you do. Define "treachery" for me. Define "love" for me. Define "do" for me. Define "to" for me. Define "others" for me. You have to redefine a whole slew of words before you start making sense.

I suggest you read above more closely. Accusing me of being homophobic is also a sin as you are lying.

So are you saying that homosexuality isn't a sin, or are you saying that you aren't anti-sin?

Now you use Paul for just this and leave the rest?

Sure. I think he was a bit slow most of the time, but he did get this part right. Besides, you believe him, so I might as well quote him.

I am twisting nothing. We can see your changing of words above in my response.

The only word you attempted to demonstrate me changing was "adultery." Then you posted an example from the Bible that absolutely agrees with my definition. Adultery is treachery against one's spouse.

Tell me, what is it about adultery that you think makes it wrong if not treachery?

My understanding of sin is reasoned. Your understanding of sin is arbitrary. My understanding can be demonstrated to be consistent with the greatest two commandments and the Golden Rule. Yours cannot. My hermeneutic is just plain superior. =)
 
I don't dislike the Law of God, I dislike the law of Moses.

I am disregarding some of your answers as they are obviously just angry rants and not really all that relevant. I am going to address however the relevant ones as they relate to Christians.

You dislike the law of Moses?

Well Jesus disagree's:

Luke 24:44-46 44 He said to them, “This is what I told you while I was still with you: Everything must be fulfilled that is written about me in the Law of Moses, the Prophets and the Psalms.

45 Then he opened their minds so they could understand the Scriptures. 46 He told them, “This is what is written: The Messiah will suffer and rise from the dead on the third day,


John 10:35-37 35 If he called them ‘gods,’ to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be set aside— 36 what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’? 37 Do not believe me unless I do the works of my Father.

I could go on, but you get the point.

Right, and since "Don't menstruate" cannot be summed up by the Golden Rule, and "don't eat bacon" cannot be summed up by the Golden Rule, and "Don't wear cotton/polyester blend tee-shirts" cannot be summed up by the Golden Rule, the law of Moses was clearly not God's Law. You were deceived. You thought it was God's Law, but the lying pen of the scribes had rendered it falsely. (Jeremiah 8:8) Fortunately Jesus came along to set the record straight. Unfortunately, not everyone was paying attention.

Some of those were health safety rules laid down by God in a time when cleanliness was important unto death by nasty diseases. So yes, they are important commands at the time from a loving God to keep his chosen people healthy.

Actually Jeremiah is saying the exact opposite of what you are trying to imply:

Jeremiah 8:8-9 And the law of the LORD is with us’? Look, the false pen of the scribe certainly works falsehood. 9 The wise men are ashamed, They are dismayed and taken. [/color=red]Behold, they have rejected the word of the LORD; So what wisdom do they have?[/color]

Why did you leave out the part measuring up the true meaning?

The two laws are actually one and the same. One cannot be accomplished without the other, for the simple fact that God is love. Anyone who loves their neighbor is indwelt with the Holy Spirit and His love is made complete in us. (1 John 4:12)

A



Ok, we look to God, and then He tells us to look to our neighbor. Do you have a point here?



Ok, I get not stealing from people you love. I get not murdering people you love, and I get not bearing false witness against people you love. Now explain to me about how love relates to not menstruating.



Wait, now you think I was incorrect about the old testament saying that menstruation was a sin? We can look at it again if you like. It hasn't changed.



Logical inference. You claimed that we only know about God from the Bible, which clearly implies that you don't know about Him from personal experience.



Bible knowledge fail again.

"And Adam called his wife's name Eve; because she was the mother of all living." -Genesis 3:20

Eve was the mother of all humanity according to the Bible.



By that reasoning, God doesn't like bacon or shrimp or mixed fabrics either. Is the Old Covenant still in effect or isn't it?



Betraying your spouse, even in your heart, is a betrayal. You don't betray people you love. You don't want people to betray you. This all fits my paradigm to a tea, so why are you acting like it somehow proves your point?



Modern English definitions are about as relevant here as peach cobbler.



Wow. Could you have proven my point any better? Are you unfamiliar with the concept of treachery? It means betrayal. You found the definition of adultery in the Bible and surprise surprise it means exactly what I said it means. Yet somehow you think you are proving me wrong my saying that adultery means dealing treacherously with your spouse.



Again, this is entirely correct for the majority of couples, who have an expectation of monogamy. "Cheating" implicitly means betrayal. The word itself means "breaking the agreed upon rules" Consensual swinging isn't cheating, by virtue of it being consensual, and all the partners being aware of the arrangement. They agree upon a different set of rules then most, and as long as they abide by those rules, they aren't cheating, therefore no sexual misconduct has taken place.

Besides of which, Wayne Jackson is hardly more of an expert on the Biblical definition of adultery than the Bible itself, and according to the Bible, adultery means "dealing treacherously with one's spouse."



No, my definition is supported by scripture. As a wise man once posted on a debate forum:

"Mal. 2:14 "The Lord has been a witness between you and the wife of your youth, against whom you have dealt treacherously, though she is your companion and your wife by covenant." Those who deal treacherously with their spouse are guilty of breaking a covenant relationship. This is "adultery."



Ok. So he never went to them again. Doesn't change the fact that he went to them in the first place. Or that he had numerous wives. None of which was a sin.



It's stated in the Old Testament. A covenant with the ancient tribes of Israel that has no bearing on us today.



Yes it is.



Yes you do. Define "treachery" for me. Define "love" for me. Define "do" for me. Define "to" for me. Define "others" for me. You have to redefine a whole slew of words before you start making sense.



So are you saying that homosexuality isn't a sin, or are you saying that you aren't anti-sin?



Sure. I think he was a bit slow most of the time, but he did get this part right. Besides, you believe him, so I might as well quote him.



The only word you attempted to demonstrate me changing was "adultery." Then you posted an example from the Bible that absolutely agrees with my definition. Adultery is treachery against one's spouse.

Tell me, what is it about adultery that you think makes it wrong if not treachery?

My understanding of sin is reasoned. Your understanding of sin is arbitrary. My understanding can be demonstrated to be consistent with the greatest two commandments and the Golden Rule. Yours cannot. My hermeneutic is just plain superior. =)[/QUOTE]
 
I don't know what happend but my post got all messed up.

So I am going to give you the definition of the word adultery from the Hebrew and Greek texts. This will show how you are absolutely preaching a false doctrine that is in no way related to a love for God or a respecting of the words of Christ and your general rejection of the Bible.

The Greek word for adultery is moicheia. The classical Greek writers assigned a very clear meaning to the term. It had to do with the illicit sexual conduct of a married person, or with a married person.

Lysias (ca. 401 B.C.) writes concerning Euphiletus, an Athenian, who killed Eratosthenes after catching him committing adultery with his wife. In his defense he contends that the Court of the Areopagus has “expressly stated that whoever takes vengeance on an adulterer moichon, caught in the act with his spouse, shall not be convicted of murder” (1.30).

Xenophon (ca. 401 B.C.) describes the adulterer who “enters the woman’s quarters, knowing that by committing adultery moicheuonti he is in danger of incurring the penalties threatened by the law.” He suggested that this is foolish since “there are many remedies to relieve him of his carnal desire without risk” (Memorabilia II.1, 5).

In the second century A.D., Sextus Empiricus wrote: “Adulterers moichous are, of course, punished by law with us, but amongst some peoples, intercourse with other men’s wives is indifferent” (Pyrrhonism III.209).


Is their any doubt what the Greeks meant by “adultery?

In the end, it means exactly what the Bible and I have said it means. The same for all sexual immorality.

It cannot be reconciled or justified by taking bits and pieces of the Bible or rejecting the divinely inspired law of God, sanctified by the words of Jesus.

I know your intentions are good, but in the process you are making a false doctrine.
 
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I don't know what happend but my post got all messed up.

So I am going to give you the definition of the word adultery from the Hebrew and Greek texts. This will show how you are absolutely preaching a false doctrine that is in no way related to a love for God or a respecting of the words of Christ and your general rejection of the Bible.

The Greek word for adultery is moicheia. The classical Greek writers assigned a very clear meaning to the term. It had to do with the illicit sexual conduct of a married person, or with a married person.

Lysias (ca. 401 B.C.) writes concerning Euphiletus, an Athenian, who killed Eratosthenes after catching him committing adultery with his wife. In his defense he contends that the Court of the Areopagus has “expressly stated that whoever takes vengeance on an adulterer moichon, caught in the act with his spouse, shall not be convicted of murder” (1.30).

Xenophon (ca. 401 B.C.) describes the adulterer who “enters the woman’s quarters, knowing that by committing adultery moicheuonti he is in danger of incurring the penalties threatened by the law.” He suggested that this is foolish since “there are many remedies to relieve him of his carnal desire without risk” (Memorabilia II.1, 5).

In the second century A.D., Sextus Empiricus wrote: “Adulterers moichous are, of course, punished by law with us, but amongst some peoples, intercourse with other men’s wives is indifferent” (Pyrrhonism III.209).


Is their any doubt what the Greeks meant by “adultery?

No doubt at all. They meant treachery against one's spouse.

It had to do with the illicit sexual conduct of a married person, or with a married person.

The keyword there is 'illicit' which means 'unlawful.' According to Jesus, the Golden Rule is the sum of all Law, so in a Biblical context adultery means "sexual conduct of a married person or with a married person not in accordance with the Golden Rule." Exactly what I said it meant. Any sexual conduct done in accordance with the Golden Rule is not only condoned, but actually commanded by God, so it cannot be considered 'illicit.'

Lysias (ca. 401 B.C.) writes concerning Euphiletus, an Athenian, who killed Eratosthenes after catching him committing adultery with his wife. In his defense he contends that the Court of the Areopagus has “expressly stated that whoever takes vengeance on an adulterer moichon, caught in the act with his spouse, shall not be convicted of murder” (1.30).

Obviously Eratosthenes betrayed Euphiletus by having sex with his wife behind his back. If they were talking about a consensual act between people who were all fully aware of the arrangement, Euphiletus would have given Eratosthenes a high five instead of killing him in a jealous rage. This example clearly still fits my betrayal definition.

Xenophon (ca. 401 B.C.) describes the adulterer who “enters the woman’s quarters, knowing that by committing adultery moicheuonti he is in danger of incurring the penalties threatened by the law.” He suggested that this is foolish since “there are many remedies to relieve him of his carnal desire without risk” (Memorabilia II.1, 5).

Exactly. Adultery is only adultery if it is disallowed by law. The law says to do to others as you would have them to do you, so any act of sex which breaks this law is sexual misconduct. If it is involving married folk then it is adultery. If it doesn't break the Golden Rule, then there are no penalties threatened by law and it isn't adultery. This example also fits my definition.

In the second century A.D., Sextus Empiricus wrote: “Adulterers moichous are, of course, punished by law with us, but amongst some peoples, intercourse with other men’s wives is indifferent” (Pyrrhonism III.209).

This example is the best of all, as the word 'moichous' is used only in the former case, referring to a treacherous practice disallowed by law. In the latter case, it is not referred to as 'moichous,' but rather as 'intercourse with other men’s wives' because those peoples are indifferent to the practice, rather than betrayed by it. Accordingly, because they are indifferent, it isn't 'moichous.'

In the end, it means exactly what the Bible and I have said it means. The same for all sexual immorality.

No, it says what the Bible and I have said it means, namely that adultery is about treachery and betrayal of trust between souls, not about a physical arrangement of molecules.

It cannot be reconciled or justified by taking bits and pieces of the Bible or rejecting the divinely inspired law of God, sanctified by the words of Jesus.

Physician, heal thyself. You have prescribed the medicine, now take some.

I know your intentions are good, but in the process you are making a false doctrine.

No, Jesus backs me up on this. You claim that adultery is "sexual conduct of a married person, or with a married person." Jesus says that you can commit adultery without actually having any sexual conduct. If you betray your wife in your heart, you have still betrayed her. It is the betrayal that is a sin, not the sex.

Malachi also backs me up in the passage you so graciously posted. Dealing treacherously with one's spouse is adultery.

Jesus also backs me up with the Golden Rule. "Do to others as you would have them do to you." If you wouldn't have your wife betray you, then don't betray her. The Golden Rule requires that there be a victim for a sin to take place. Someone must be mistreated. Otherwise, no sin has occurred.

Paul also backs me up here. "For this, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not kill, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, Thou shalt not covet; and if there be any other commandment, it is briefly comprehended in this saying, namely, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself." -Romans 13:9

If you love your neighbor, you won't betray them, because betrayal just isn't very loving.

Paul backs me up again in the very next verse:

"Love worketh no ill to his neighbour: therefore love is the fulfilling of the law." -Romans 13:10

No victim, no crime. If you aren't working ill to your neighbor, then you are fulfilling the law. Betrayal is what makes adultery a sin.
 
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You are the only person that thinks somehow it is all inclusive as no evidence exist to say different. It's not all inclusive and does not mean just betrayal of ones spouse. Again you throw out the sum of it's teachings for what amounts to a false doctrine.

Then again as I said you are not a Christian. Your statements are nothing but new age blasphemy spouted to somehow justify wrong doing. I mean you try and justify polygamy, incest and fornication as well, so your words do not in any way glorify love or God, as far as I can tell.
 
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The Christian I have most respected had a simple message for me...

"People do many things that God did not intend, but God wants people to be happy and what is really important is to love God and to love his children. If you do that much then you are living as a Christian."

Frankly, this whole idea of "wrong doing" and "sinning" seems ridiculous to me. It is a deficit way of thinking because it doesn't allow you to see people for their strengths and humanity. Especially when people take it upon themselves to judge others as Christian or not Christian. That is between people and their God and it is incredibly absurd that any human thinks they can take the place of God and judge whether others are living their lives in a way to be worthy of his love.

Now you can call this idea "New Age" but it has existed long before Christianity. Nobody knows whether the Bible is the infallible word of God, and given the disposition of people who follow it, I imagine it is very unlikely that it is. I take what I want and leave the rest behind and I have no shame in doing so because I know as long as I am grateful for being here and I have love in my heart for others that I could never find myself separated from a Creator who would allow me to experience those things. If you cannot see that, then so be it, but your path is not the journey for me.
 
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The Christian I have most respected had a simple message for me...

"People do many things that God did not intend, but God wants people to be happy and what is really important is to love God and to love his children. If you do that much then you are living as a Christian."

That is the problem. If you truly love God, you would follow his laws. If you cannot truly love God, how can you be a Christian?

I mean I see your point and even agree to a certain extent, but it is more than just letting people do bad things and then saying it's alright, I forgive you.

Frankly, this whole idea of "wrong doing" and "sinning" seems ridiculous to me. It is a deficit way of thinking because it doesn't allow you to see people for their strengths and humanity. Especially when people take it upon themselves to judge others as Christian or not Christian. That is between people and their God and it is incredibly absurd that any human thinks they can take the place of God and judge whether others are living their lives in a way to be worthy of his love.

I agree about the judging, but we are not to condone wrong doing in any way. We as Christians are to lead by example and love is part of that. Doing what glorifys God is also right.

Now you can call this idea "New Age" but it has existed long before Christianity.

In Christian circles it is recent. I did not say all religions or tried to imply that.

Nobody knows whether the Bible is the infallible word of God, and given the disposition of people who follow it, I imagine it is very unlikely that it is. I take what I want and leave the rest behind and I have no shame in doing so because I know as long as I am grateful for being here and I have love in my heart for others that I could never find myself separated from a Creator who would allow me to experience those things.

I know the Bible is infallible because I have faith in God. Like it or not it makes your position no more or less as outsdie of faith, it means nothing.

It is good that you have faith in your version of God, I have no problem with that at all. Do not on the other hand disparage my belief and call it love.

If you cannot see that, then so be it, but your path is not the journey for me.

I can see it, but everyone has their own path. I respect yours and ask that you respect mine whether you agree or not.
 
I know the Bible is infallible because I have faith in God. Like it or not it makes your position no more or less as outsdie of faith, it means nothing.

I'm happy for you. You have your path in life and as long as it makes you happy to follow it, then that is all that matters. I have no interest in arguing with you about it because I can't make you happy by forcing you to accept my point of view. Following your interpretation of that book would not make me happy. Good luck on your journey.
 
You are the only person that thinks somehow it is all inclusive as no evidence exist to say different. It's not all inclusive and does not mean just betrayal of ones spouse. Again you throw out the sum of it's teachings for what amounts to a false doctrine.

Then again as I said you are not a Christian. Your statements are nothing but new age blasphemy spouted to somehow justify wrong doing. I mean you try and justify polygamy, incest and fornication as well, so your words do not in any way glorify love or God, as far as I can tell.

I am not the one throwing out the sum of its teachings. The sum of its teachings is "In everything, do to others what you would have them do to you." This is what Jesus said the sum of its teachings was.

Where is your evidence that incest is not permissible under the New Covenant? King David was a polygamist long before the matter of Uriah the Hittite, so polygamy can't be a sin according to 1 Kings 15:5.

And the word porniea (fornication) means illicit sex. I have demonstrated how homosexuality is not always illicit.

Telling me I am wrong without presenting evidence isn't much of a debate strategy.
 
I am not the one throwing out the sum of its teachings. The sum of its teachings is "In everything, do to others what you would have them do to you." This is what Jesus said the sum of its teachings was.

Where is your evidence that incest is not permissible under the New Covenant? King David was a polygamist long before the matter of Uriah the Hittite, so polygamy can't be a sin according to 1 Kings 15:5.

And the word porniea (fornication) means illicit sex. I have demonstrated how homosexuality is not always illicit.

Telling me I am wrong without presenting evidence isn't much of a debate strategy.

I did present evidence, lots of it.

I understand you don't want to acknowledge the first and most important part of the law in the Bible according to Jesus. I understand why you want to throw out Paul and much of the rest. It does not fit in with your world view or religious view, OK. I am certain others would agree with you, same goes for me in the opposite direction. It also goes that way for the majority of Christians. Again this is OK.

We are through as we are just repeating ourselves and repeating the same arguments with the same evidence.

You go in peace and have a good one. :)
 
I did present evidence, lots of it.

Where did you present evidence that incest is sinful under the New Covenant? The only argument you made for incest being a sin was in post 558:

We know in the Mosaic law it was banned. So we can at least assume God does not like it.

You didn't reference a book and chapter, so I am gong to assume you are talking about Leviticus 18. We have previously agreed that Leviticus law is not applicable to Christians today because it was part of the Old Covenant made with the people of Israel. You have provided no evidence at all that incest is a sin for Christians living under the New Covenant.



I understand you don't want to acknowledge the first and most important part of the law in the Bible according to Jesus.

Since when is "gay is bad" or "incest is bad" the first and most important part of the law? According to Jesus, The Golden Rule encompass the entire law. (Matt 7:12) The two Greatest commandments are 'love God with all your heart, mind and soul,' and 'love your neighbor as yourself.' (Matt 22)

That is the New Covenant in its entirety. In order for something to be a sin, it must fit the following formula. "It is a sin to do X to someone, because you wouldn't want them doing X to you." If it doesn't fit that description, it isn't a sin.

I understand why you want to throw out Paul and much of the rest. It does not fit in with your world view or religious view,

Forget my world view or religious view, it doesn't even agree with itself. The Bible is demonstrably rife with irreconcilable contradictions.

OK. I am certain others would agree with you, same goes for me in the opposite direction. It also goes that way for the majority of Christians. Again this is OK.

We are through as we are just repeating ourselves and repeating the same arguments with the same evidence.

We've still got plenty of loose ends. You haven't yet attempted to justify Jesus touching the leper in Matt 8 (a sin according to Mosaic law, but not according to the Golden Rule)

I demonstrated that Eve is the mother of all humanity (Genesis 3:20) which means that incest was part of the original design. (Additionally, the idea that God created other humans from scratch would mean that they did not inherit mortality from the fall, since God only creates perfect beings) You have yet to respond to this either.

The definition of adultery that you found in Malachi defines adultery as "dealing treacherously with one's spouse" yet you deny this definition. This definition is logical and intuitive and corroborates the Golden Rule. Your definition is arbitrary and contradicts the Golden Rule. Not only that, but if it actually had to do with the sex act itself as you seem to claim, then you couldn't commit adultery just by looking at a woman to lust after her, as that does not involve the sex act.

It does involve betrayal though, which is one of many reasons why my definition fits better.

You go in peace and have a good one. :)

Awww don't go. There is still plenty left to debate.
 
Where did you present evidence that incest is sinful under the New Covenant? The only argument you made for incest being a sin was in post 558:



You didn't reference a book and chapter, so I am gong to assume you are talking about Leviticus 18. We have previously agreed that Leviticus law is not applicable to Christians today because it was part of the Old Covenant made with the people of Israel. You have provided no evidence at all that incest is a sin for Christians living under the New Covenant.





Since when is "gay is bad" or "incest is bad" the first and most important part of the law? According to Jesus, The Golden Rule encompass the entire law. (Matt 7:12) The two Greatest commandments are 'love God with all your heart, mind and soul,' and 'love your neighbor as yourself.' (Matt 22)

That is the New Covenant in its entirety. In order for something to be a sin, it must fit the following formula. "It is a sin to do X to someone, because you wouldn't want them doing X to you." If it doesn't fit that description, it isn't a sin.



Forget my world view or religious view, it doesn't even agree with itself. The Bible is demonstrably rife with irreconcilable contradictions.





We've still got plenty of loose ends. You haven't yet attempted to justify Jesus touching the leper in Matt 8 (a sin according to Mosaic law, but not according to the Golden Rule)

I demonstrated that Eve is the mother of all humanity (Genesis 3:20) which means that incest was part of the original design. (Additionally, the idea that God created other humans from scratch would mean that they did not inherit mortality from the fall, since God only creates perfect beings) You have yet to respond to this either.

The definition of adultery that you found in Malachi defines adultery as "dealing treacherously with one's spouse" yet you deny this definition. This definition is logical and intuitive and corroborates the Golden Rule. Your definition is arbitrary and contradicts the Golden Rule. Not only that, but if it actually had to do with the sex act itself as you seem to claim, then you couldn't commit adultery just by looking at a woman to lust after her, as that does not involve the sex act.

It does involve betrayal though, which is one of many reasons why my definition fits better.



Awww don't go. There is still plenty left to debate.

And I have already proved all of that wrong. Changing definitions of words and trying to do an end run around the rest of the Bible does not work.

We are done.
 
And I have already proved all of that wrong. Changing definitions of words and trying to do an end run around the rest of the Bible does not work.

We are done.

When did you even address the applicability of incest laws under the New Covenant?
 
You are the only person that thinks somehow it is all inclusive as no evidence exist to say different. It's not all inclusive and does not mean just betrayal of ones spouse. Again you throw out the sum of it's teachings for what amounts to a false doctrine.

Then again as I said you are not a Christian. Your statements are nothing but new age blasphemy spouted to somehow justify wrong doing. I mean you try and justify polygamy, incest and fornication as well, so your words do not in any way glorify love or God, as far as I can tell.

That really isn't true that he is the only one who defines adultery like that. There are plenty of people who consider adultery to only be "betrayal of one's spouse" and wouldn't say that swingers commit adultery. I'm one, although I'm not Christian. But I also know my mother feels this way too, and she is Catholic.
 
That really isn't true that he is the only one who defines adultery like that. There are plenty of people who consider adultery to only be "betrayal of one's spouse" and wouldn't say that swingers commit adultery. I'm one, although I'm not Christian. But I also know my mother feels this way too, and she is Catholic.

And they would be wrong according to the excepted definition. I mean just because some people don't want to accept the definition does not make it's definition change.

I already posted the definition form a few sources including ancient Greek. They all say sexual intercourse with other than your spouse as well.

Again I know betrayal is part of it, but this does not make it all inclusive or throw out the sexual aspect.
 
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And they would be wrong according to the excepted definition. I mean just because some people don't want to accept the definition does not make it's definition change.

I already posted the definition form a few sources including ancient Greek. They all say sexual intercourse with other than your spouse as well.

Again I know betrayal is part of it, but this does not make it all inclusive or throw out the sexual aspect.

Actually, the ancient Greek source didn't prove your point at all. The incident described definitely fit into the definition of "betrayal of the spouse".

I have followed along, and although the current definitions do fit with your views, that doesn't mean that the Bible's definition does. You need passages from the Bible to support you in saying that the Bible's meaning for adultery includes acts that are done with the other spouse's permission and that a person's spouse wouldn't see as a betrayal. So far, you haven't given any evidence from the Bible to support this.

And no one left out the sexual aspect of it. The motive and/or acceptance of the "adulterer's" spouse is where the argument lies.
 
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