If you (the seller) know that the guy you bought them from thinks they are going bad, then you should have to disclose this.
Why?
I believe it fits the definition of fraudulent for you recommend buying the apples. Whether it is legally fraudulent is another matter. I don't know how the laws about it are written.
Not necessarily. Just because the organizer thinks the assets will go bad doesn't actually CAUSE the assets to go bad. I think Buffet is 100% correct in his statement that Paulson's shorting had no impact upon the asset quality. GS and every other investment bank should not have to tell all potential investors what everyone else is doing.
If Paulson was actively selling the underlying assets at a loss to trigger a depreciating market, that would be another story, but as I understand, Paulson merely picked the assets and then took out derivatives designed to produce income if the assets declined in value. Who's making bets on assets has never been required disclosure.
I think it is the case that investors look to Goldman for recommendations about investing. If Goldman does make recommendations, I think they should have to act in good faith.
I agree with you partially there. If GS merely called people up and said "here, I have this CDO package, you interested? Here's the facts" and left it at that, they'd be in the clear. That's different from the 1990s brokers who were pushing stocks as great buys that couldn't go wrong when they knew that the stocks were total crap.
If Goldman had themselves believed the investments to be a good bet, and they had failed, then too bad for the investors. But, if Goldman believed the investments to be a bad bet, recommended them as a good bet, and made sales of them based on their deception, then the law ought to hold them to account.
But since when was the advice of your adviser ever eliminated your own due diligence?
And as to the notion of buyer beware in Capitalistic systems: Bad information is one of the biggest reasons why Capitalism produces crises from time to time.
Hence why the efficient market hypothesis is total absolute bull****. Information disparity is rampant in capitalistic markets.
Since this is the case, people who partake of transactions in Capitalist systems should always be required BY LAW to disclose pertinent information that they are privy to. Quite often people are required to do so. For example, in my state, if you sell a house, and it has things wrong with it, and you know that it does, then you are required by law to disclose that information. You will be liable if you do not.
Ah, but your house example is facts about the house
itself. Not what people are betting on what will happen to the house. There's the rub. GS as I understand it fully disclosed what the assets in the package were. Therefore, the pertinent information regarding the sale was made. Remember that they are buying into the income stream from the collaterized debt. It is their job to know what the assets that are generating that income are made of and frankly, that's the only thing that matters in terms of legal disclosure.
If we had complete openness from the players in the system, we would have never had the recent asset bubbles. Not only is the requirement of disclosure fair, it is essential as policy.
Yes and no. In a logical, information parity capitalist market, sure. But we don't have a logical, information parity market. Right now Apple has capitalization in excess of 25+ huge firms
combined. Not logical.