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I am curious what people think about this question.
Why does property become something other than property after someone dies?
A house is still property, bank holdings, stocks, etc. still property. I don't know what it would become if it became something other than property.
I am curious what people think about this question.
A trust can be set up where the deceased would still be able to exert some control from beyond the grave.
I am curious what people think about this question.
If the owner ceases to exist, then their ability to own also ceases to exist.
The property belongs to the estate of the dead person.I am curious what people think about this question.
The property belongs to the estate of the dead person.
That estate is to be settled according to the laws of the state.
So, I guess to asnwer the question, the dead person does, in a way, still own the property.I agree that there are certain legalities.
So, I guess to asnwer the question, the dead person does, in a way, still own the property.
Personally, that is the part I am trying to rationalize. In what way? As far as I can tell, they no longer have a will (not the document) to exercise.
But they did have a will, and specified such through legal documentation. That's that. It's like any bit of property, if I sell you something but in the contract say that the property always has to be used for X (assuming X is a legal activity), that's that. Even after I'm no longer the property owner.
The real property, as well as the bank accounts, etc, are all in his name. That makes it legally his; absent some legal mechanism to that effect, no one can simply take the assets contained therein.Personally, that is the part I am trying to rationalize. In what way? As far as I can tell, they no longer have a will (not the document) to exercise.
The real property, as well as the bank accounts, etc, are all in his name. That makes it legally his; absent some legal mechanism to that effect, no one can simply take the assets contained therein.
Oh.I know all that, but I am speaking philosophically here, not legally.
Oh.
Well heck!
Then the answer is no -- because it can be philosophically argued that no one ever owns anything!
:mrgreen:
I am curious what people think about this question.
Obviuosly a dead person cannot exercise any direct will or decision over the properties in question -- but that doesn't equate to an argument that he does not still legally own them.Hehe, that's one of the problems with philosophy, you can arrive at any answer if you have the right premise.