- Joined
- Jul 21, 2005
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Do you believe that Executive Action done because "Congress is not acting" is likely Constitutional?
A question here presented in a broad sense.
Do you personally, regardless of whether you think the courts would agree or not, believe that, in general, Executive Action done because "congress is not acting" is likely a Constitutional action? Specifically, this is talking about instances where Congress has taken engaged in discussion or negotiation about a particular matter, but ultimately...due to whatever reason....has chosen to NOT take action by not bringing it to a floor vote or not receiving the necessary votes to pass a bill.
In such cases, do you believe it's constitutionally justified for a President to take Executive Action to enact an aspect or a proxy instance of said legislative action?
****NOTED CAVEAT**** Please note, this isn't saying every instance is definitely Unconstitutional / Constitutional, but whether or not you believe it LIKELY is one of those options when it occurs. ****NOTED CAVEAT****
A question here presented in a broad sense.
Do you personally, regardless of whether you think the courts would agree or not, believe that, in general, Executive Action done because "congress is not acting" is likely a Constitutional action? Specifically, this is talking about instances where Congress has taken engaged in discussion or negotiation about a particular matter, but ultimately...due to whatever reason....has chosen to NOT take action by not bringing it to a floor vote or not receiving the necessary votes to pass a bill.
In such cases, do you believe it's constitutionally justified for a President to take Executive Action to enact an aspect or a proxy instance of said legislative action?
****NOTED CAVEAT**** Please note, this isn't saying every instance is definitely Unconstitutional / Constitutional, but whether or not you believe it LIKELY is one of those options when it occurs. ****NOTED CAVEAT****