Well, so much for my 100% will agree on this theory. :doh
It's not a theory. It's the dictionary definition of racism, 2b. It's also the sociological definition of racism. It's definitions, not theory.
Although Blacks do not have societal control in the US, this particular black person does have total control of his dealership. Hence, he does fit your definition.
Regarding majority privilege, context must be global. Also...
1. Black discrimination against whites (with very rare exception) is not founded in supremacist belief. If it's not a supremacist belief, bigotry, then it doesn't even satisfy dictionary definition 1, let alone 2b.
2. It doesn't contribute to "a social system (majority privilege) based on racism", definition 2b.
3. The white can go around a corner and find a place without discrimination against him. The black will find discrimination, to some extent in the form of majority privilege, every place he goes. Not the same thing. This is why global, or at least national when the social dynamic is not changed, context is important.
Let me ask you, is the Black led government of Mogabe in Zimbabwe racist when it forces white landowners off of their property?
1. Was it done based on a supremacist belief? No. It was done based on the belief that land had been stolen during colonization. If it's not racial bigotry, it doesn't even satisfy dictionary definition 1.
2. Was the discrimination inescapable? No. The whites went somewhere they were not discriminated against. Majority privilege is inescapable, global.
Do blacks in Zim suffer majority privilege? Yes, the Western world holds the majority power, as evidenced by colonialism and the effects are still felt today.
Well, I'm tired and starting to flub terms. I used social construct with Haymarket when I meant majority privilege (a social construct). So I think it's time for me to take a break from this complicated subject. Feel free to read the thread. I've already been over all this.