You'll definitely need to offer some actual evidence of this. Kings were subordinate to the church. Napoleon's refusal to let the pope crown him was shocking at the time. What you're saying sounds like a lot of historical revisionism, trying to overlay your modern American ideals (which are good ideals) over history to justify painting your religion as somehow superior and an ally of those modern ideals when it is anything but.
Secularism didn't "take" in Christian culture. It supplanted it. Christian culture now exists in the southern countries in Africa. We don't have Christian culture here. We have secular culture.
In that same vein, secular culture has been trying since at least the 1950s to gain a foothold in the Middle East (which if, of course, not the entirety of Muslim countries). It's had some successes, and plenty of setbacks, including the propping up of fundamentalist dictators in order to prevent those countries from embracing socialist ideas and allying with the Soviet Union. A lot of the movements behind the Arab Spring (which has been a mixed bag) were secular movements. Why hasn't secular culture supplanted Muslim culture? Because it's still in the process of doing so. Let's root for it to continue.
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None of which is the result of Judaism. It comes from American secularism. Why is it important to you to suggest that Judaism is somehow superior to other religions? It isn't. It's a normal crappy one just like all the others.
Christian apostates are killed in Christian countries. This, as usual, requires the explanation that industrialized secular nations aren't Christian countries, while many southern African ones, where they allow religion to dominate their lives in ways that industrialized secular nations would never tolerate. In Lesotho, Zambia, or Nambia, apostasy is met with violence, just like in Saudi Arabia. Why does this fact confuse you?
Why are you only counting since 2000? Again, cherry picking your data. Either way, every single year, including since 2000, thousands of Palestinian children are killed by the Israeli military. How can you possibly not consider that genocide? And why must you invoke emotionally charged terms like "blood libel" (which has nothing to do with the situation we're talking about) in order to support your factually incorrect argument? Are you really suggesting that these children aren't dying? It seems like you are, since you deny the numbers involved and I apparently have to hunt them down for you.
2013 was a deadly year in Israel-Palestine | +972 Magazine (38 Palestinians vs 6 Israeli deaths in 2013)
Israel and the Palestinians: Gaza abacus | The Economist (173 Palestinians vs 4 Israeli deaths in 2012)
Sharp increase in Palestinian deaths in 2011 - Middle East - Al Jazeera English (105 Palestinians vs 11 Israeli deaths in 2011)
I have no idea how you can suggest that a reaction by Jews to religious persecution in Europe is not religious in nature. Do you know what the words you're using mean?
Remember that first post that started your weird rants? The one where I speculated that Judaism might be more peaceful than its contemporaries but we don't really know since it doesn't occupy the position of power that Hinduism, Christianity, and Islam enjoy? And the most available evidence, the violence in Palestine, doesn't really suggest that Judaism is immune to inciting religious violence when it has a little power to do so. I don't see any reason to assume that it wouldn't act exactly the same as its contemporaries with global power.
Judaism's teaching are just as misogynistic, authoritarian, and cruel as other religions' are. Because they are the exact same teachings. It's excellent that Israel isn't the same kind of poor and uneducated nation that Nambia or Afghanistan is. But that doesn't vindicate the religion.
The difference between religiously motivated violence and violence "in the name of a religion" is not the thread topic at all. It's a meaningless distinction that you keep bringing up in order to claim that some religious violence is acceptable and some (the modern string of Islamic-based violence) isn't. Any violence done over religious distinctions or religious ideology is wrong. Do you disagree with that statement? Is a woman being killed for having sex outside of marriage more or less evil when committed by Muslims in Saudi Arabia than it is when committed by Christians in Mozambique or Hindus in India? I say it is completely evil in all three cases and should never be tolerated.
Why do you capitalize "filthy slanders"? I've been dying to ask that for years. Frothing conservatives and religious apologists capitalize words for emphasis rather than just proper nouns and the start of sentences. Why do you do that?