I know. My point required the assumption, though.
If it existed, then perhaps, but the conceptualised god presented by the scriptures, which all make repeated reference to gender, is clearly male.
There are plenty of reasons to refer to God as male in the scriptures without actually necessitating the existence of a vestigial penis. The primary one being that the culture to which the scriptures were aimed was a patriarchal culture. Logically speaking, it makes more sense for a sexless god to refer to itself as male given the audience it was targeting that it does for a being in a single-organism species to be male.
All of this, of course, assumes God exists.
Good question that has no answer.
Actually, it
does have an answer. Assuming that God does exist, the only
logical explanation for God being referred to in the scriptures as male is that the scriptures are not intended by god to be taken literally, and that god was employing a persuasive rhetorical approach in his self-identification as "male".
But those who are adamant about God having a vestigial penis are also the people who make the assumption that the bible
is to be taken literally and is incapable of any inaccuracies, even if they were
intentional inaccuracies made by God for entirely persuasive rhetorical reasons.
The entire debate is ultimately a logical paradox caused by people's illogical assertion that the bible was
designed by god to be a
literal depiction of reality (rather than a book of stories and parables meant to teach lessons about life and morality).
By combining logical deductions, we can see that, at
best, the Bible was intended by God to be a collection of lessons,
not a historical account of reality. Those who chose to believe the latter is the case must therefore actively reject logic, since it is impossible to reach that belief in via valid and sound logic.