If someone only molest young boys is he gay, a pedohile or both. [W:417]

CaptainCourtesy said:

You REALLY shouldn't use Conservapedia as a source. It's about as accurate as broken clock.

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At least "Conservapedia" will be right at least twice a day.

CaptainCourtesy said:

No, there is a difference between sexual orientation and pedophilia. They are not the same thing. Most men who molest boys are heterosexual.

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Wouldn't that make them bisexual ?

again with the info provided theres only one accurate way to vote. Pedophile. There no information supplied that would allows anybody to factually determine his sexual orientation.

Technically, a pedophile is a lover of feet.

Well, if you go by Latin.

DA60 said:

Technically, a pedophile is a lover of feet.

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I believe that's a nymph-toe-maniac. :lamo

CaptainCourtesy said:

No it isn't as evidenced by the fact that most men who molest young boys are heterosexual. Pedophilia has nothing to do with one's sexual orientation.

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First, I want you to understand this in the context that I'm very pro-SSM and gay rights, but this is a matter of simple definitions. Second, I never said it had anything to do with sexual orientation. I'm saying if he only has sexual relations with males, regardless of age, he is homosexual. If a pedophile likes boys, he's at a minimum a bisexual.

If I only like blonde females, I'm not only a lover of blondes, I'm also a heterosexual.

Here's a chart I made up for you. Let's use "John" as an example. These are his titles based on the x'd preferences.

A pedophile is a pedophile, is a scumbag of the worst sort. His sexual orientation is immaterial.

Navy Pride said:

What do you think?

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Neither, if someone only molests little boys he's probably an officer in the US navy.

RabidAlpaca said:

First, I want you to understand this in the context that I'm very pro-SSM and gay rights, but this is a matter of simple definitions. Second, I never said it had anything to do with sexual orientation. I'm saying if he only has sexual relations with males, regardless of age, he is homosexual. If a pedophile likes boys, he's at a minimum a bisexual.

If I only like blonde females, I'm not only a lover of blondes, I'm also a heterosexual.

Here's a chart I made up for you. Let's use "John" as an example. These are his titles based on the x'd preferences.

John	Males	Females	Children
Heterosexual		x
Homosexual	x
Bisexual	x	x
Heterosexual Pedophile		x	x
Homosexual Pedophile	x		x
Bisexual Pedophile	x	x	x

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The problem, as I've previously explained, is your emphasis on the sex of the child. The sex does not really matter, all that matters is the fact it is a prepubescent child.

Consider. When you were a child (you indicate you are male in your profile), who did you prefer to hang out with; other boys your age or other girls? If you chose to hang out with other boys mostly, did that make you homosexual? If you chose to hang out with girls mostly did that make you heterosexual? Funny thing, each sort of behavior pattern I just mentioned did just the opposite when adults saw it...hanging with boys indicated you were heterosexual, while hanging with girls brought up the fear you might be homosexual.

Pre-teen children often display signs of mutual affection that have nothing whatsoever to do with sexuality. They hug, kiss, cuddle, hold hands with each other all the time regardless of their sex. They even touch each other out of mere curiousity.

The current idea seems to be that a pedophile with a particular preference for boys, or for girls, is just acting out his earlier preferences for hanging out with boys or girls when he was a child. However, now that he is an adult, he can reinforce his childhood preference with self-gratification. He is certainly not gratifying the child he is with who is simply confused, scared, and merely following the instructions of the adult.

It is overly simplistic to try to use that chart you provided to categorize this behavior pattern by adult sexual orientation.

Captain Adverse said:

The problem, as I've previously explained, is your emphasis on the sex of the child. The sex does not really matter, all that matters is the fact it is a prepubescent child.

Consider. When you were a child (you indicate you are male in your profile), who did you prefer to hang out with; other boys your age or other girls? If you chose to hang out with other boys mostly, did that make you homosexual? If you chose to hang out with girls mostly did that make you heterosexual? Funny thing, each sort of behavior pattern I just mentioned did just the opposite when adults saw it...hanging with boys indicated you were heterosexual, while hanging with girls brought up the fear you might be homosexual.

Pre-teen children often display signs of mutual affection that have nothing whatsoever to do with sexuality. They hug, kiss, cuddle, hold hands with each other all the time regardless of their sex. They even touch each other out of mere curiousity.

The current idea seems to be that a pedophile with a particular preference for boys, or for girls, is just acting out his earlier preferences for hanging out with boys or girls when he was a child. However, now that he is an adult, he can reinforce his childhood preference with self-gratification. He is certainly not gratifying the child he is with who is simply confused, scared, and merely following the instructions of the adult.

It is overly simplistic to try to use that chart you provided to categorize this behavior pattern by adult sexual orientation.

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We're talking about sexual relations, not hang outs, so that example doesn't make any sense at all. Hanging out with someone isn't molestation.

It's pretty black and white. Sexual orientation and pedophilia are not in any way correlated, but you can be more than one adjective at a time.

Where is this imaginary separation occuring where a pedophile only having sexual interest in boys is not also homosexuality? What if a pedophile has a sexual relationship with a 17 year old male? It's not gay, not until one day later when he turns 18? Then it's super gay?

CaptainCourtesy said:

The only people who think Herek is a radical lefty are radical righties.

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Anyone who advocates that the U.S. military should be used for social engineering experimentation is 99.9% likely to be a "radical lefty."

Dr. Merek is a radical leftist activist and also a hetrophobe who labels anyone who doesn't condone same sex sodomy as being prejudice.
I'm willing to bet that it was Dr. Merek who also wanted to make bestiality legal in the military and I'm sure Merek will label anyone who doesn't except bestiality as being normal of being prejudice.

Senate Approves Bill that Legalizes Sodomy and Bestiality in U.S. Military

>" On Nov. 15, the Senate Armed Services Committee had unanimously approved S. 1867, the National Defense Authorization Act, which includes a provision to repeal Article 125 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).

Article 125 of the UCMJ makes it illegal to engage in both sodomy with humans and sex with animals...

“It’s all about using the military to advance this administration’s radical social agenda,” Perkins told CNSNews.com. “Not only did they overturn Don’t Ask Don’t Tell, but they had another problem, and that is, under military law sodomy is illegal, just as adultery is illegal, so they had to remove that prohibition against sodomy.”

Perkins said removing the bestiality provision may have been intentional--or just “collateral damage”

“Well, whether it was inadvertent or not, they have also taken out the provision against bestiality,” he said. “So now, under the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ), there’s nothing there to prosecute bestiality."..."<
Senate Approves Bill that Legalizes Sodomy and Bestiality in U.S. Military | CNS News

Side note: You may have remembered that the Obama White House were against keeping bestiality illegal in the military. But once it became public Obama and those he surrounds himself with sure became silent on the issue, probably hoping that Dr. Merek will be able to indoctrinate those who oppose sodomizing animals by telling them if you don't condone bestiality your sexually prejudice.

RabidAlpaca said:

We're talking about sexual relations, not hang outs, so that example doesn't make any sense at all. Hanging out with someone isn't molestation.

It's pretty black and white. Sexual orientation and pedophilia are not in any way correlated, but you can be more than one adjective at a time.

Where is this imaginary separation occuring where a pedophile only having sexual interest in boys NOT also homosexuality? What if a pedophile has a sexual relationship with a 17 year old male? It's not gay, not until one day later when he turns 18? Then it's super gay?

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But it does apply. You are misusing the term "pedophile." Please look up the definiton. It applies to persons who perform sex acts on a regular basis (i.e. having engaged in it more than once) with a child 13 years old and younger.

Your inclusion of "adult" juveniles is actually "Ephebophilia," which is not considered a mental disorder, and is actually pretty normal form of attraction for most adults. Many adult men and women find male or female teenagers sexually attractive. They are also fully sexually functional, an important difference in comparison to a pedophile.

Engaging in consentual sex with a 17 year-old male or female is perfectly legal in 39 states (including New York and Illinois) and the District of Columbia. It is only illegal in 11 States. Engaging in consentual sex with a 16 year-old male or female is legal in 31 states and D.C. In fact the last time I checked, having consentual sex with someone 16 or older is legal in 90% of the nations around the world, including almost all European nations. (I think only 3 or four require participants to be 18). The typical legal limitations involve family relationships or adults in positions of authority over the juvenile, like a coach or a teacher. Otherwise, it's perfectly legal.

A man having a sexual interest in a 17 year-old boy could be either gay or bi-sexual. If the boy agreed to the liason they would engage in "gay sex." If not, it would be simple rape.

A man performing sex acts on a child 13 or under is simply using it as a tool to get off on. His preference was developed as a pre-teen himself, probably based on who he enjoyed hanging out with when he was under 13. Big difference.

Captain Adverse said:

But it does apply. You are misusing the term "pedophile." Please look up the definiton. It applies to persons who perform sex acts on a regular basis (i.e. having engaged in it more than once) with a child 13 years old and younger.

Your inclusion of "adult" juveniles is actually "Ephebophilia," which is not considered a mental disorder, and is actually pretty normal form of attraction for most adults. Many adult men and women find male or female teenagers sexually attractive. They are also fully sexually functional, an important difference in comparison to a pedophile.

Engaging in consentual sex with a 17 year-old male or female is perfectly legal in 39 states (including New York and Illinois) and the District of Columbia. It is only illegal in 11 States. Engaging in consentual sex with a 16 year-old male or female is legal in 31 states and D.C. In fact the last time I checked, having consentual sex with someone 16 or older is legal in 90% of the nations around the world, including almost all European nations. (I think only 3 or four require participants to be 18). The typical legal limitations involve family relationships or adults in positions of authority over the juvenile, like a coach or a teacher. Otherwise, it's perfectly legal.

A man having a sexual interest in a 17 year-old boy could be either gay or bi-sexual. If the boy agreed to the liason they would engage in "gay sex." If not, it would be simple rape.

A man performing sex acts on a child 13 or under is simply using it as a tool to get off on. His preference was developed as a pre-teen himself, probably based on who he enjoyed hanging out with when he was under 13. Big difference.

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LOL, so if you're molesting a boy, it's not gay until his 13th birthday, then you're gay as hell!

Bahahahahaha.

.

>" Gay activists have strenuously argued that there is no connection between homosexuality and the sexual abuse of children. They point out that the majority of child molestation cases are by heterosexuals. But they neglect a pivotal fact: Homosexuals comprise only a small percentage of the population, yet account for an extraordinarily high percentage of offenses against children.

A recent study in Demography estimated the number of exclusive male homosexuals in the general population at 2.5 percent, and the number of exclusive lesbians at 1.4 percent. The study took into account three large data sets, including the all-encompassing U.S. Census.

Now consider a report from the Journal of Sex Research which noted that homosexual pedophiles commit about one-third of the total number of child sex offenses, even though they are outnumbered by heterosexuals 20 to one. Less than four percent of the population commits one-third of the offenses against children!

In The Gay Report, homosexual researchers report data showing that better than 7 out of 10 homosexuals surveyed had at some time had sex with boys 16 to 19.

Or consider a study in Archives of Sexual Behavior, which found that of 229 convicted child molesters surveyed, “85 percent of offenders against males described themselves as homosexual or bisexual.”

The evidence is clear. Homosexuals have an overwhelming propensity towards child molestation. This is not to say that all homosexuals act out with pedophile tendencies. But the percentage of those who do is so disproportionately high it would be irresponsible and costly to ignore. Just ask the Roman Catholic Church.

At the same time, the liberal media has worked overtime to disconnect pedophelia and homosexuality...<
Penn State, Syracuse University, Pedophelia, Homosexuality and Child Abuse… | Conservative Critic's Blog

RabidAlpaca said:

LOL, so if you're molesting a boy, it's not gay until his 13th birthday, then you're gay as hell!

Bahahahahaha.

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Just so you know, straight people molest those of the same sex all the time. Prison is one place it happens frequently. Being gay is about who you are attracted to primarily.

Redress said:

Just so you know, straight people molest those of the same sex all the time. Prison is one place it happens frequently. Being gay is about who you are attracted to primarily.

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Apparently they're bi-curious. If you have sexual relations with someone of your same gender, you by the very definition, are at least bisexual. heterosexual, by definition, is off the table.

It doesn't magically become gay on someone's 13th birthday.

RabidAlpaca said:

LOL, so if you're molesting a boy, it's not gay until his 13th birthday, then you're gay as hell!

Bahahahahaha.

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You're just being silly. Now I am not going to pretend to be either a psychologist or a psychiatrist. I have neither the specialized training, nor the inclination. However, as a lawyer with an interest in criminal law I try to keep up on recent liturature in the field, and am doing my best to intepret it in the forum. If it were court, I would dicuss the evidence with an expert witness and let him/her present it.

It's my understanding that it's very rare, (but not unheard of) for a pedophile to engage in such activities with both children and adults (i.e. fully functional sexual beings) of the same sex. Typically, a pedophile will portray a heterosexual role in order to blend in, sort of like camoflage for his true intentions. This allows him to date women, marry, and even have children. He may or may not molest his own children, but otherwise he will focus his efforts on the type of child he developed a preference for while himself a pre-teen.

The exact cause of this childhood fixation remains unclear, so far as I understand. Perhaps it is psychological imprinting on a happy period in the individual's life, or even some kind of hormonal imbalace, I don't know. But the "fixation" on prepubescent children is what is causing it to be considered a possible orientation.

Also, you are confusing "molestation" with pedophilia; a person can be a "molester" while not being a pedophile. For example, he can prey on juveniles who are under the legal age of consent but still older than 13, it would depend on state law. A pedophile always preys on pre-teens so he is always BOTH a molester and a pedophile.

RabidAlpaca said:

Apparently they're bi-curious. If you have sexual relations with someone of your same gender, you by the very definition, are at least bisexual. heterosexual, by definition, is off the table.

It doesn't magically become gay on someone's 13th birthday.

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You do not understand the difference between orientation and action. It is very large and unsubtle. Simplest description: orientation is who you are attracted to, actions are who you engage is sex with. You do not have to be attracted to some one to have sex with them,

Redress said:

You do not understand the difference between orientation and action. It is very large and unsubtle. Simplest description: orientation is who you are attracted to, actions are who you engage is sex with. You do not have to be attracted to some one to have sex with them,

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So you're trying to say pedophiles aren't attracted to children? They are both attracted to them AND engage in actions. So I have absolutely no idea what point you were trying to make.

CaptainCourtesy said:

No, there is a difference between sexual orientation and pedophilia. They are not the same thing. Most men who molest boys are heterosexual.

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If they molest boys they are no longer heterosexual. Here we go again, not all gay men are pedophiles, but all men the crave have sex with boys are GAY. Actions speak louder that words.

Rocketman said:

If they molest boys they are no longer heterosexual. Here we go again, not all gay men are pedophiles, but all men the crave have sex with boys are GAY. Actions speak louder that words.

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I understand your position, because you believe this kind of action, like homosexuality, is purely a choice. As if a heterosexual man minding his own business, married, family of his own, suddenly looked up one day and said "Hey! How about I start messing with little prepubescent boys from now on? That sounds like a novel and well-considered idea." And off he goes....

Those of us who believe sexual orientation is not a choice, will of course disagree with you. If he was truly heterosexual he would only focus on "adult" (i.e. mature, sexually functional) females. If he were homosexual he would only focus on "adult" (i.e. mature, sexually functional) males, and if he were bisexual he would be happy with "adult" (i.e. mature, sexually funtional) members of either sex.

Pedophiles focus only on children (i.e. immature, and sexually non-funtional). Why is still under study.

Captain Adverse said:

I understand your position, because you believe this kind of action, like homosexuality, is purely a choice. As if a heterosexual man minding his own business, married, family of his own, suddenly looked up one day and said "Hey! How about I start messing with little prepubescent boys from now on? That sounds like a novel and well-considered idea." And off he goes....

Those of us who believe sexual orientation is not a choice, will of course disagree with you. If he was truly heterosexual he would only focus on "adult" (i.e. mature, sexually functional) females. If he were homosexual he would only focus on "adult" (i.e. mature, sexually functional) males, and if he were bisexual he would be happy with "adult" (i.e. mature, sexually funtional) members of either sex.

Pedophiles focus only on children (i.e. immature, and sexually non-funtional). Why is still under study.

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I would agree with you were it not for a local teacher that was always being watched that ended living with two of the boys after they turned 18. He was questioned twice on record and there was not enough evidence to charge him. By law he was a pedophile, his orientation as you call it is homesexual.

So according to you: He is a pedophile when chasing them in school, but after they are 18 he is no longer a pedophile but just gay.:roll:

Rocketman said:

I would agree with you were it not for a local teacher that was always being watched that ended living with two of the boys after they turned 18. He was questioned twice on record and there was not enough evidence to charge him. By law he was a pedophile, his orientation as you call it is homesexual.

So according to you: He is a pedophile when chasing them in school, but after they are 18 he is no longer a pedophile but just gay.:roll:

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Well, I am not familiar with any "case" involving this, perhaps if you can provide a legal citation?

In any case, this teacher would only be a "pedophile" if he started with both boys when they were 13 or under. Do you have evidence that this was the case?

I seem to recall that someone already went over this with you here?

It is NOT "pedophilia" if the activity involves juveniles over the age of 13. It would be child sexual abuse in any state while the boys were 14 or 15.

However, in 31 states the legal age of consent is 16, in eight (8) others it is 17, and only in eleven (11) is it 18. So it would depend on when the sexual interaction occurred depending on each state as to whether or not this would amount to child sexual abuse.

However, most states do have laws preventing authority figures like teachers and coaches from engaging in such activity while the young men are under their care. Apparently the two young men do not wish to provide evidence of such activity? Oh well...I guess they are content with what occurred, if anything, before they turned 18.

P.S. Most states with those "authority figure" laws would still allow the youths to press charges within a statute of limitations period if they provided evidence after turning 18 but still within the limitations period which would typically start from the last act of sexual abuse prior to age 18.

Captain Adverse said:

Well, I am not familiar with any "case" involving this, perhaps if you can provide a legal citation?

In any case, this teacher would only be a "pedophile" if he started with both boys when they were 13 or under. Do you have evidence that this was the case?

I seem to recall that someone already went over this with you here?

It is NOT "pedophilia" if the activity involves juveniles over the age of 13. It would be child sexual abuse in any state while the boys were 14 or 15.

However, in 31 states the legal age of consent is 16, in eight (8) others it is 17, and only in eleven (11) is it 18. So it would depend on when the sexual interaction occurred depending on each state as to whether or not this would amount to child sexual abuse.

However, most states do have laws preventing authority figures like teachers and coaches from engaging in such activity while the young men are under their care. Apparently the two young men do not wish to provide evidence of such activity? Oh well...I guess they are content with what occurred, if anything, before they turned 18.

P.S. Most states with those "authority figure" laws would still allow the youths to press charges within a statute of limitations period if they provided evidence after turning 18 but still within the limitations period which would typically start from the last act of sexual abuse prior to age 18.

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Your answers are in my last post, if you choose not to read them, that is on you. My opinion has not and will not change.

navy pride said:

what do you think?

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response: Both.