German guy
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Re: Does "white privilege" exist? If so, should it be corrected?
As I'm not American, I don't want to comment on the situation in America in particular, but on ethnic/racial minorities in general.
When in a country, there are ethnic/racial minorities, and their average material situation such as income, education level and representation, is lower than that of the majority ethnicity/race, that of course begs for questions (assuming there is no legal discrimination, obviously). The only two reasons I can think of are that 1) they are not given equal opportunities, because the majority maintains a "privilege", or 2) something about that ethnicity/race makes them inherently incapable of achieving like the majority.
As far as I know, blacks in America have a considerably lower income and education average compared to whites. Why is that? You answer me, because I am not sure. But I don't like explanations that belong to 2), such as "blacks are genetically less intelligent/ambitious/etc". Following 2), maybe it's their culture? But what is "black culture"? Aren't African Americans exposed to the same culture as white Americans?
1) would encompass arguments such as "white privilege": Due to involuntary, non-malicious racist stereotypes, blacks are disadvantaged in a society dominated by whites. Maybe white employers are less likely to hire a qualified black than a white employee, because they have (subconscious, involuntary) prejudices. Maybe white teachers show the same prejudice towards black pupils.
Most likely, the real problem is not due to one single reason, but a mix of various of these reasons, to different degrees. So what do you think? Did I overlook something important?
"White privilege (or white skin privilege) refers to what some individuals perceive as advantages that white people enjoy in certain societies beyond those commonly experienced by people of color in the same social, political, or economic spaces (nation, community, workplace, income, etc). The controversial term connotes both obvious and less obvious unspoken advantages that white individuals may not recognize they have. These include cultural affirmations of one's own worth; greater presumed social status; and freedom to move, buy, work, play, and speak freely. The concept of white privilege also implies the right to assume the universality of one's own experiences, marking others as different or exceptional while perceiving oneself as normal. It can be compared and/or combined with the concept of male privilege. Does this still exist? If so, should it be corrected and fought against?
As I'm not American, I don't want to comment on the situation in America in particular, but on ethnic/racial minorities in general.
When in a country, there are ethnic/racial minorities, and their average material situation such as income, education level and representation, is lower than that of the majority ethnicity/race, that of course begs for questions (assuming there is no legal discrimination, obviously). The only two reasons I can think of are that 1) they are not given equal opportunities, because the majority maintains a "privilege", or 2) something about that ethnicity/race makes them inherently incapable of achieving like the majority.
As far as I know, blacks in America have a considerably lower income and education average compared to whites. Why is that? You answer me, because I am not sure. But I don't like explanations that belong to 2), such as "blacks are genetically less intelligent/ambitious/etc". Following 2), maybe it's their culture? But what is "black culture"? Aren't African Americans exposed to the same culture as white Americans?
1) would encompass arguments such as "white privilege": Due to involuntary, non-malicious racist stereotypes, blacks are disadvantaged in a society dominated by whites. Maybe white employers are less likely to hire a qualified black than a white employee, because they have (subconscious, involuntary) prejudices. Maybe white teachers show the same prejudice towards black pupils.
Most likely, the real problem is not due to one single reason, but a mix of various of these reasons, to different degrees. So what do you think? Did I overlook something important?