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Texas secession?

Texas secession?

  • Anytime they want

    Votes: 47 54.7%
  • Bad times only

    Votes: 1 1.2%
  • No way

    Votes: 35 40.7%
  • I don't know

    Votes: 0 0.0%
  • Other

    Votes: 3 3.5%

  • Total voters
    86
You have a very juvenile understanding of the Constitution. Thank God the framers were smart enough to institute a court to interpret it instead of leaving it to the states. Otherwise this country would have been reduced to bunch of petty little fifedoms full petty little tyrants bickering and warring with each other a long time ago.

It should be noted that even the founders came to realize the failure of the supreme court.
 
You have a very juvenile understanding of the Constitution. Thank God the framers were smart enough to institute a court to interpret it instead of leaving it to the states. Otherwise this country would have been reduced to bunch of petty little fifedoms full petty little tyrants bickering and warring with each other a long time ago.

So you think the court's decision was consistent with the constitution. Okay, what prohibition did they cite that prevents a state from leaving the union?
 
So you think the court's decision was consistent with the constitution. Okay, what prohibition did they cite that prevents a state from leaving the union?

im a little hazy on this,but i believe it was no part of the constitution,but rather the federalist papers the declaration of independance and the articles of confederation were all used in the court decision.
 
NO. You simply see something there which is not there. You have adopted a self imposed beliefs system based on axioms which cannot be proven nor disproved and you allow those to trump reality.

Um, no. I am basing my opinion on the constitution. I have no idea upon what you are basing your position, but it certainly is not the constitution.

The constitution clearly says that powers not prohibited to the states are reserved to the states. There is no prohibition on the power of a state to leave the union, therefore, states have that power.
 
im a little hazy on this,but i believe it was no part of the constitution,but rather the federalist papers the declaration of independance and the articles of confederation were all used in the court decision.

Despite the fact that the constitution is the supreme law of the land?

Judicial fail.
 
Despite the fact that the constitution is the supreme law of the land?

Judicial fail.

they also use jefferson when interperating the first amendment even though madison wrote it and was the father of not only the first amendment,but the bil of rights,yet the courts ignore him and chose jefferson who other some phrases had no part of the first amendment,and even jefferson states he should not be a constitutional authority,as he was involved in foreign relations in france during its creation.

its kinda like have a chevy break down,then telling chevy that have no clue about the car they made and then calling ford to find out whats wrong with it.
 
Whaaaaa???

The supremacy clause simply states that the constitution is the supreme law of the land.
If it's so simple then why don't you understand it?



The 10th amendment says that anything that is not prohibited to the states is permitted.
The SCOTUS ruled the states are prohibited from seceding.

And where in the constitution does it prohibit the states from seceding?
For the fourth time, its found in the power delegated to the Supreme Court, Article 3 of the constitution. You should read it sometime.
 
So you think the court's decision was consistent with the constitution. Okay, what prohibition did they cite that prevents a state from leaving the union?

On a previous page, I provided the reasoning from Chief Justice Chase.

By these, the Union was solemnly declared to "be perpetual." And when these Articles were found to be inadequate to the exigencies of the country, the Constitution was ordained "to form a more perfect Union." It is difficult to convey the idea of indissoluble unity more clearly than by these words. What can be indissoluble if a perpetual Union, made more perfect, is not?

and more from Chase


When, therefore, Texas became one of the United States, she entered into an indissoluble relation. All the obligations of perpetual union, and all the guaranties of republican government in the Union, attached at once to the State. The act which consummated her admission into the Union was something more than a compact; it was the incorporation of a new member into the political body. And it was final. The union between Texas and the other States was as complete, as perpetual, and as indissoluble as the union between the original States. There was no place for reconsideration or revocation, except through revolution or through consent of the States.

and more from the Chief Justice

Considered therefore as transactions under the Constitution, the ordinance of secession, adopted by the convention and ratified by a majority of the citizens of Texas, and all the acts of her legislature intended to give effect to that ordinance, were absolutely null. They were utterly without operation in law. The obligations of the State, as a member of the Union, and of every citizen of the State, as a citizen of the United States, remained perfect and unimpaired.

The Court clearly does NOT see it as you do.

Nor does the current most conservative Justice on the Court Antonin Scalia

"I am afraid I cannot be of much help with your problem, principally because I cannot imagine that such a question could ever reach the Supreme Court. To begin with, the answer is clear. If there was any constitutional issue resolved by the Civil War, it is that there is no right to secede.


Since Justice Scalia has discussed the Tenth Amendment at length throughout his career, he obviously is informed about it.
 
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If it's so simple then why don't you understand it?



The SCOTUS ruled the states are prohibited from seceding.

For the fourth time, its found in the power delegated to the Supreme Court, Article 3 of the constitution. You should read it sometime.

the irony is they had nothing to rule off of,that desicion itself is on par with bypassing the constitution.btw the constitution does not grant scotus the power to rule on constitutionality,scotus granted itself that power,prior to scotus granting itself power over the constitution,any court could rule on it and it would only reach a higher court if further challenged.
 
For the fourth time, its found in the power delegated to the Supreme Court, Article 3 of the constitution. You should read it sometime.

Article 3 assigns the judicial power to the supreme court.

Let me ask you a question. If someone were to ask you, "Where in the constitution does it say that the president's term is 4 years?" Would you say, article 3? Or would you say Article 2, section 1?

If the supreme court were to decide that the president's term was to be 5 years rather than 4, would you just shrug your shoulders and say, "Well, article 3 gives the supreme court the power to interpret the constitution, so I guess the supreme court must be right..."

I am asking where in the constitution it says that a state is prohibited from leaving the union. I am well aware that the judicial power is vested in the supreme court, and I am well aware that the supreme court has ruled that secession is unconstitutional. However, I am questioning the validity of their ruling, and am asking you upon what they based their ruling.

You, of course, will respond with something like, "For the fifth time, because the supreme court said so", so I don't hold out much hope of any further fruitful dialog. I'm hitting the rack. See you all tomorrow.
 
Um, no. I am basing my opinion on the constitution.
No your not. You're basing your opinion on your own opinion of the constitution, not what it really says or does.

I have no idea upon what you are basing your position, but it certainly is not the constitution.
If you have no idea then you don't understand the constitution.

The constitution clearly says that powers not prohibited to the states are reserved to the states. There is no prohibition on the power of a state to leave the union, therefore, states have that power.
What is it about the Supreme court that you don't understand? You seem wanton to ignore it's existence in this discussion.
 
On a previous page, I provided the reasoning from Chief Justice Chase.



and more from Chase

And yet you don't seem to understand he just created power when none existed and created a false reality in using the AOC as if it was still standing. It also completely misses the point it was the PEOPLE in reference, but don't let any of this stop you.
 
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And yet you don't seem to understand he just created power when none existed and created a false reality in using the AOC as if it was still standing. It also completely misses the point it was the PEOPLE in reference, but don't let any of this stop you.

The power where none existed is the power to quit the nation.

It does not exist. Thus it is not impacted by the Tenth Amendment.
 
The power where none existed is the power to quit the nation.

It does not exist. Thus it is not impacted by the Tenth Amendment.

Keep telling yourself that the words "to form a more perfect nation" has power hay and continue to not find any evidence behind such a belief system.

This **** is almost as dumb as Hank Johnson saying the preamble allows UHC or his famous capsizing island comment.
 
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Keep telling yourself that the words "to form a more perfect nation" has power hay and continue to not find any evidence behind such a belief system.

I do not have the slightest idea what you are talking about. Do you? Why then cannot you explain it?
 
I do not have the slightest idea what you are talking about. Do you? Why then cannot you explain it?

I did. What part of it having no power what so ever do you not understand?
 
I did. What part of it having no power what so ever do you not understand?
I'm not seeing where you get that Chief Justice Chase "created power when none existed and created a false reality". Where do you get this from and don't say the Constitution because the Constitution explicity gives the Supreme Court the power to interpret the Constitution.
 
I'm not seeing where you get that Chief Justice Chase "created power when none existed and created a false reality". Where do you get this from and don't say the Constitution because the Constitution explicity gives the Supreme Court the power to interpret the Constitution.

The founders?? What do you use when you figure out if the Supreme court got it right? The court? That is just laughable if so.

False reality #1:

AOC is not standing and Article six only covers standing engagements at the time. This does not reference the AOC so bring it up is like bringing up the monsters under your bed when you are thirty six. It's completely pathetic for someone to do in his position. When the founders make it a point to say they are throwing it out and that article six is only covering engagements left standing they meant it.

False reality #2:

The words to form a more perfect union was never said by any founder to have power and it was merely describing the goals of what they were putting out. It had nothing to do with states rights or secession and it never gave any authority to anyone.

Its interesting that all three Justices that went by the name of Chase were douchebags. At least one was punished for it.
 
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The founders?? What do you use when you figure out if the Supreme court got it right? The court? That is just laughable if so.

Courts are not infallible to be sure. But most of them do try to follow the Constitution as humanly possible.

False reality #1:

AOC is not standing and Article six only covers standing engagements at the time. This does not reference the AOC so bring it up is like bringing up the monsters under your bed when you are thirty six. It's completely pathetic for someone to do in his position. When the founders make it a point to say they are throwing it out and that article six is only covering engagements left standing they meant it.
Article Six references the AOC as the Confederation and says that all debts contracted and engagements entered into under the Confederation remain valid under the new Constitution. One of those engagements entered into was the formation of a perpetual union among the states. Article six doesn't dissolve that engagement, it validates it.

False reality #2:

The words to form a more perfect union was never said by any founder to have power and it was merely describing the goals of what they were putting out. It had nothing to do with states rights or secession and it never gave any authority to anyone.
The very first thing the Preamble says is "We the People of the United States" which means the people were already a united states before the constitution was written. How were they were united? By the AoC of course. The Preamble was meant to show the intention of the existing "United States" to form a stronger national government in order to make a more perfect union. The union under the AoC was less than perfect because the central government was weak and so the Constitution was ordained by the people to form a stronger one with more permanency.

But you're right the courts don't use the Preamble to base their rulings on, but they do however look to it to help them find the framers "intentions", just as they look to the Federalist Papers, the AoC, the Declaration of Independence, letters and essays written by the founding fathers before and after the signing of the Constitution and more.

Chief Justice Chase was right, it was the intention of the people of the United States to form a stronger more permanent union....

"....The Union of the States never was a purely artificial and [p725] arbitrary relation. It began among the Colonies, and grew out of common origin, mutual sympathies, kindred principles, similar interests, and geographical relations. It was confirmed and strengthened by the necessities of war, and received definite form and character and sanction from the Articles of Confederation. By these, the Union was solemnly declared to "be perpetual." And when these Articles were found to be inadequate to the exigencies of the country, the Constitution was ordained "to form a more perfect Union." It is difficult to convey the idea of indissoluble unity more clearly than by these words. What can be indissoluble if a perpetual Union, made more perfect, is not?

When, therefore, Texas became one of the United States, she entered into an indissoluble relation. All the obligations of perpetual union, and all the guaranties of republican government in the Union, attached at once to the State. The act which consummated her admission into the Union was something more than a compact; it was the incorporation of a new member into the political body. And it was final. The union between Texas and the other States was as complete, as perpetual, and as indissoluble as the union between the original States. There was no place for reconsideration or revocation, except through revolution or through consent of the States.
Texas v. White - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
 
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from Moot

The very first thing the Preamble says is "We the People of the United States" which means the people were already a united states before the constitution was written. How were they were united? By the AoC of course. The Preamble was meant to show the intention of the existing "United States" to form a stronger national government in order to make a more perfect union. The union under the AoC was less than perfect because the central government was weak and so the Constitution was ordained by the people to form a stronger one with more permanency.

But you're right the courts don't use the Preamble to base their rulings on, but they do however look to it to help them find the framers "intentions", just as they look to the Federalist Papers, the AoC, the Declaration of Independence, letters and essays written by the founding fathers before and after the signing of the Constitution and more.

It is more than a bit revealing that the modern conservative and libertarian shows nearly complete loathing for the part of the Constitution labeled as the Preamble but they have no problem elevating the personal writings and observations of individuals to the level of scared text well above the Preamble.
 
from Moot



It is more than a bit revealing that the modern conservative and libertarian shows nearly complete loathing for the part of the Constitution labeled as the Preamble but they have no problem elevating the personal writings and observations of individuals to the level of scared text well above the Preamble.

From reading some of J. Madison's later writings, even in his day conservatives (especially S. Carolina) had loathing for the entire Constitution except of course for the 10th amendment. So what surprises me is how little has changed. lol
 
May I ask, are you involved with the secession movement?
And are you aware that secesson sentiment in TX is virtually all among very conservative whites? The Latino population would oppose this to their last breath, as would progressive cities like Austin.
Any secession attempt would lead to violence and a shattered state.

I don't actively take action to forward Texas towards secession, I would simply highly support it if it were to come to pass.

Why the hell would I care about the demographics of something I support? I believe what I believe regardless of party lines and race. Perhaps you consider grouping yourself into an ideological and race based clique to be an effective argument, but I don't.
 
On a previous page, I provided the reasoning from Chief Justice Chase.

and more from Chase

and more from the Chief Justice

The Court clearly does NOT see it as you do.

Nor does the current most conservative Justice on the Court Antonin Scalia

I had asked whether the court cited any specific constitutional prohibition against a state leaving the union. None of these quotes do so.
 
No your not. You're basing your opinion on your own opinion of the constitution, not what it really says or does.

If you have no idea then you don't understand the constitution.

What is it about the Supreme court that you don't understand? You seem wanton to ignore it's existence in this discussion.

I understand that the supreme court's job is to judge cases. I am not disputing that their job is to judge cases. I am criticizing their decision in this particular instance.

I think they got it wrong because 1) there is no constitutional prohibition against a state leaving (Look in article I, section 10, that lists the prohibitions on states) and 2) the 10th amendment says that the states have the power to act in any manner that is not prohibited by the constitution.

Again, I am not saying that the court may not make decisions. Of course, that is the court's job. I am simply critiquing this particular decision.

If you think they got it right, then I would like to hear why. If you think my critique is wrong, again, tell me why.
 
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