You're right in saying that 1 Peter 3 does not give time stamps.
Your word choice is misleading. Not giving time stamps is an understatement. It doesn't even give a ballpark. It just talks of things Christ did after death. It doesn't specify how long after death, whether or not it was after his resurrection, and says nothing about how long he did this for.
The bottom line is that the verse doesn't support your claim. It is, at best neutral to your case.
There are other things that lead me to believe Jesus was in hell for three days, mostly typology.
That's a very shaky foundation on which to stake your position.?
That, and it's the traditional view.
It's a traditional view, but we can easily trace where this tradition comes from and why it developed. Once we do, we see the reason why it became a traditional view, since it filled in a greater narrative. This view had to do with the idea of "the harrowing of hell"; that triumphant event when Jesus entered into hell to free the captives. This idea, in turn, forms part of the 'christus victor' theology of atonement. This view on atonement posits that Satan had a legitimate claim on the souls of all sinners due to their sinful nature and that Christ acted as bait to trick Satan into killing him leading to him losing his claim over the souls of men for having overstepped his authority and killed a sinless person. Obviously, no contemporary Christian church (at least that I know of), holds this view of atonement. The harrowing of hell fit neatly into that atonement narrative: having tricked Satan and accomplished the release of the souls of men, Christ charges into hell, smashing the gate down to free those imprisoned.
So here we have a tradition for which there is nearly no scriptural support, yet it becomes the traditional view....why? It fit their narrative. It made a lot of sense within the dominant view of atonement at the time. But now, we don't have that view of atonement and Christ descending into hell no longer even makes sense to us. If we go back and look for the scriptures that support the view, we find nothing. In fact the only scripture we have that purports to say anything about where Christ was after he died features Christ himself telling someone he will be in paradise with him.
I think this is a clear case where we know enough about the tradition and its origins to say that it is not a tradition worth keeping.
I'm no Romanist (obviously), but tradition does supplement the interpretation. For example, Ignatius was very adamant about the real prescence of Christ's flesh and blood in the Eucharist. Therefore, to interpret "this is my body" as real presence is the better argument, other things aside (but best argument other things included too).
Other things aren't aside. My view does take tradition into account. In fact my view looks for not just 'what does the bible say' and 'what does tradition say' but 'how did that tradition develop and why'?
The typology is basic. You seem pretty familiar with this kind of stuff seeing your understanding of Church Fathers, so I'll go by it quickly. I'm also tired, but want to finish the post. A person was not really dead until after 3 days. The Jews didn't understand a coma, so they just assumed dead. But after 3 days, rarely did anyone get back up. That's why Lazarus was just into day 4 when Jesus raised him. It demonstrated Jesus' real power over life and upcoming victory over death. So Jesus too was in the grave for three days.
The fact Jesus was in the grave for three days was never in question.
Death is not a friend, but an enemy. So, the analogy is that Jesus was in the enemy camp for 3 days.
What analogy? You're the first to mention enemy camps. Are you wanting to pull in other verses and try to build a whole system to support that view?
Also, it seems intuitive that at his resurrection Jesus finished his humiliation and was in his exaltation. So prior to his exaltation, Jesus should be in humility, and therefore submitting to death.
Humiliation and exaltation? I guess you did build a whole system to support that view.
I think it's not a bad assumption to say Jesus was in hell all three days.
Given all we know, the belief that Jesus was in hell for three days is unwarranted.
Also, verse 18-20 is one giant, crazy run on sentence. It proves Peter wrote it...
The authorship of the text isn't in question. The fact it doesn't say what you claimed it does is what was in question.
I think we have now established that it does not say Jesus spent three days in hell it merely tells of one thing Jesus did at some point after dying.