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What about the census that did not happen?
Your claim has already been shown in other threads to be a bad argument.
What about the census that did not happen?
He wasn't wrong about Jesus. If there's any ignorance it concerns the argument that the Biblical Jesus was a made-up story.
Your claim has already been shown in other threads to be a bad argument.
I will also point out that Josephus was tampered with , and the passages referencing Jesus are very likely to be total forgeries from later on. The Talmud was written in the late 2nd early 3rd century, over 150 years after the Crucifixion.
Can you present this evidence that Josephus was tampered with?
WHY is the fact that there was no census at the time the Gospel of Luke said there was one, seen as a bad argument? I've read the apologists defense of the reality of the census and they fail.
Simplest problem - the paragraph before and the paragraph following are related, the Testimonium just pops up. Then there are the multiple failures by early church fathers to even mention the Testimonium.
The fantasy of the birth of Jesus has more holes in it than a Swiss cheese.
Define specifically what would constitute physical evidence for the resurrection?
No idea, but you are the one making the claim about the resurrection., so you find it.
So, you have no clue what kind of specific evidence you're demanding but want it anyway? That's very disingenuous of you, Ramoss.
Ok. I'll tell you the first thing needed.... a very specific thing. I want you to show that resurrection is possible at all. Not merely a resuscitation, but an actual resurrection. That would be a good start. Show that the claim is possible.
It would only be possible if magic was involved.
So basically, it is just opinion. Is there any tangible evidence, you know like forensic or archeological? The claim was made that this was a forgery. Is there evidence to support that claim?
That's your spin, and an example of your poor scholarship, and zyzgy's bad argument.
William Ramsey noted (NBD, s.v. "Quirinius"): Ramsay held that Quirinius was appointed an additional legate of Syria between 10 and 7 bc, for the purpose of conducting the Homanadensian war, while the civil administration of the province was in the hands of other governors, including Sentius Saturninus (8-6 bc), under whom, according to Tertullian (Adv. Marc. 4. 19), the census of Lk. 2:1ff. was held.
Quirinius could EASILY have been responsible for the census.
And curiously enough, even if that were NOT the case somehow, the linguistic data of the last few decades indicates that Luke 2.1 should be translated 'BEFORE the census of Quirinius' instead of the customary 'FIRST census of Quirinius'--see Nigel Turner, Grammatical Insights into the New Testament, T&T Clark: 1966, pp. 23,24 and Syntax, p. 32. This would 'solve the problem' without even requiring two terms of office for Q.
And, while we are talking about Greek here...the term Luke uses for Quirinius' 'governorship' is the VERY general term hegemon, which in extra-biblical Greek was applied to prefects, provincial governors, and even Caesar himself. In the NT it is similarly used as a 'wide' term, applying to procurators--Pilate, Festus, Felix--and to general 'rulers' (Mt 2.6). [The New Intl. Dict. of New Test. Theology (ed. Brown) gives as the range of meaning: "leader, commander, chief" (vol 1.270)...this term would have applied to Quirinius at MANY times in his political career, and as a general term, Syria would have had several individuals that could be properly so addressed at the same time. Remember, Justin Martyr called him 'procurator' in Apology 1:34, which is also covered by this term.] My point is...nothing is really out of order here...
http://www.christian-thinktank.com/quirinius.html
And, of course, we have the historical account in the Gospel of Luke.
NO, we do not have any "historical account in the Gospel of Luke"
William Ramsey (d. 1916) was a British chemist and a True Believer - an apologist, like many others who seem quite willing to create their own versions of history.
Whether a census for tax purposes or for determination of property ownership, there are no records of any empire-wide action during the time in question. There would have been no such action when Herod was king so that causes a problem with the dating of the supposed birth of Jesus. Why would a thousand year old ancestor be the one to determine where a man was to register his presence? If it was for property ownership, why did Joseph and Mary end up in the barn (manger)? They had no family in Bethlehem?
Quirinius could well have fulfilled the positions covered by the word "hegemon" but from 11 to 3 BCE, he was not in Syria but instead the province of Bithynia, so he doesn't fit into the Herod narrative.
Descriptions of Roman census taking does not fit with the idea of Joseph and Mary leaving their home in Nazareth.
and none of this from Logicman fits in with the "non-Biblical sources" for this thread
One quote from the James Bishop blog illustrates the ignorance found in most non-academic apologists.
This claim actually originated with Gary Habermas and Mike Licona in their book, The Case for the Resurrection of Jesus, it has been destroyed by multiple examples of its wrongness but Licona has even admitted that he was wrong.
What are the non-Biblical sources for the existence of Jesus of Nazareth?
It would only be possible if magic was involved.
OK, so you're nothing but dead meat when you die. Very chic!
Just because something is outside of current secular knowledge doesn't mean it must be magic. Growth, decay, transformation...it's science bitch.