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No, it is indicative of what is and should be allowed.
Again, that is one argument, an argument that those I am discussing this with can more easily understand.
The other argument, as provided, is not dependent on that, but on the fact that he is already responding to the threat before the threat throws the weapon.
Not focusing on his hands when he concentrating on center-mass is what is likely.
Once the suspect has established himself as a threat and you are responding with said force you do not cease until the suspect is no longer a threat, even if the suspect then throws the weapon he had, as exemplified in the other case's video.
And in shooting to stop escape, you shoot until the flight ceases.
:doh
Without any evidence to say he did.
Pure unadulterated bs.
You have nothing to suggest "pissed off".
What we do have is the Officer already responding to the threat when the threat then throws the weapon, just like in the other video.
No it isn't, and; Wrong.
His flight predisposes us to that fact that he would be shot in the back and as such you shoot (in the back) until the fleeing ceases.
The Officer was responding at the point the suspect had the taser and was a threat, and you continue to respond until that threat is eliminated.
You are conveniently ignoring the fact that he was already responding to the threat when the suspect threw the weapon.
Nor does one automatically become a non-threat once they have established them self as a threat simply because they threw away the weapon they possessed.
This is exemplified by the other video where the Officer was cleared and not charged.
:doh iLOL
You haven't been able to show any evidence of any credibility problem.
All you have is nonsensical speculation.
iLOL No.
It highlights no problem.
It doesn't even establish that there is a problem to begin with, while it does ignore the known evidence and the possibility that the officer did not see him throw it.
But it does highlight why such issues (the one mentioned in the blog) should not be before juries to begin with.
Had you followed that blog entry to the one it referenced and read it and it's replies, you would have found the Jury instructions regarding the use of deadly force in SC which reflects the SCOTUS ruling and not the state's law of "immanent" threat.
Police officer - arrest
During an arrest for a felony, if the arresting officer has probable cause to believe that the suspect poses a threat of serious physical harm, either to the officer or to others, the officer may prevent the escape by using deadly Force. [SUP]71[/SUP]
See below post for the complete instruction.
Those felonies would have been his initial assault on the Officer while resisting, then taking the Officer's taser and attempting to use it against the Officer.
A combative, assaultive suspect is a threat to anybody he encounters.
To think that such a suspect wouldn't attempt to inflict serious physical harm on other to further his escape, as he already attempted on the Officer, is absurd.
The reasonable assumption is that he would, as it coincides with his previous actions.
I'm a regular reader and occasional commenter on that blog. I read the original and the comments the day they were published. I had forgotten that the SC charging instructions had been listed.
In either case what this entire discussion boils down to is whether Scott represented a threat to Slager or someone else. You contend, if I understand you correctly, that he represented a threat because he went after the officers taser, scuffled with him etc and that the threat continued to exist and would continue to do so until Slager dealt with it.
Does that same line of reasoning hold if Slager waited 10 additional seconds and shot Scott when he was 100 feet away? A minute later? An hour later? At what point does the officer lose the right to respond with deadly force to a fleeing suspect who had previously threatened him?