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One of the few areas where I've detected some revisionist history sliding into the realm of acceptance is in the Polish collaboration with Nazis in running the six death camps on Polish soil. When I was a kid, the Polish hatred of Jews was commonly known. Today, it seems that is no longer an acceptable argument.
So, the question to address is. What is true?
Well, let's start at the beginning.
What happened? Simple answer: Russians. But, there were also Cassocks, Tatars, Ottomans and Swedes who upset that happy little apple cart. Long story short,
The Jews bounced back, but the Polish nation never really recovered as it was invaded time and again until finally being fully occupied by Russians up until the end of WW1. But, then, **** just got worse.
However, it was more convenient to put lipstick on a pig. So...official reports stated that all the pogroms were "exaggerated," but the powers that be still wrote up a few special rules to protect Jews in Poland. And, for a while, things got better.
But, a few years later, as we all know, things got a whole lot worse.
Really bad timing for that "zenith" thing to occur, because we all know what happened next.
I'm not so sure that it can be claimed that Poland was partly responsible. Hitler's attack on Poland was really fast and he had his SS fully installed in shorty order: the Poles just simply did not have the capacity to fight him. Hitler went right after the Jewish population because of the sanctuary conditions.[/i] Under your terms, the same argument could be made for any fallen country with a Jewish population.