- Joined
- Nov 12, 2017
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- Slightly Liberal
The information seems sketchy but it appeared to be a domestic violence issue where a restraining order was already in place and when it went off the rails one spouse shot the other, the kids and then committed suicide. Now, most people would say that is a clear sign of mental illness but I think it might not be so clear and the offender-now dead-might not have exhibited any signs of mental illness. I do note that domestic disturbances are often the most dangerous for police because domestic disputes create hard to read variables
Just curious....do you think a person who has acted in a way to be issued a restraining order should have full access to his guns?