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- Jul 30, 2017
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In 1969 it became illegal for convicted felons to own guns and in 1996 it became illegal for people convicted of misdemeanors of domestic violence to own guns but is it retroactive for convictions that occurred prior to the passage of such laws. I heard a story of a fellow who was denied a gun purchase because he had a felony conviction. Some time in the 50s he had removed and stolen a car's radio from out of a car and that conviction prohibited him from buying guns. However, since the conviction was from the 50s it was before the passage of the law in 1969 which prohibits convicted felons from buying guns. I also know of a case of a guy who was denied the purchase of a gun because of a misdemeanor conviction of domestic violence. His conviction? As a kid he had gotten into a fistfight with his brother. From what I know about it, the conviction was before 1996 when it became illegal for people with misdemeanors of domestic violence to buy guns. It appears that the passage of these laws that bar certain people from owning guns based on convictions that they are retroactive for convictions that occurred prior to the laws being passed but that's not how it should be. Laws barring gun ownership based on convictions should not be retroactive of convictions from before the passage of the laws and if a person is denied a gun purchase because of convictions that preceded the passage of such laws than they should take it to court and argue in court that their convictions were from before the laws were passed.