Loans. DaveFagan applies at bank for DaveFagan bonding/loan of $10,000. Bank OKs same and deposits $10,000. in DaveFagan Bonding/loan account. Bank carries DaveFagan Bonding/loan as asset and also has Deve's money on deposit while it is used to cover costs. This works because Dave has income/resources to cover principal and interest payments. Coupons AND principal Reduction. Standard Operating Procedure. Bank can sell my loan anytime. Banking regulation friendly.
US Treasury applies at bank for US Treasury bonding/loan of $1 Triillion. Bank/FED OKs same and deposits $1 Trillion in US Treasury Bonding/loan account. Bank carries Bonding/loan as asset and also has US Treasury's money on deposit while it is used to cover costs. This works because US Treasury has income/resources to cover interest only. Coupon and no principal reduction. NOT Standard Operating Procedure. Bank can sell US Treasuries/loan anytime. Banking Regulation friendly???
US Treasury perhaps abuses this option and suddenly owes $22 Trilliion in Bonds/loans, only paying the interest. However, as soon as the paper is written and approved, the Trillions of dollars are credited to the US Treasury, and gives birth to the term, "money from thin air."
Do these paragraphs seem clear, accurate, real World? I can understand why a FED or any bank would want to unload assets that just paid interest and no principal reduction. Especially since the collaterol is the words "full faith and credit" and nothing of intrinsic value.
This part is incorrect: "Bank carries DaveFagan Bonding/loan as asset
and also has Deve's money on deposit while it is used to cover costs."
You can't treat both sides of the bank's ledger as assets. Your promissory note for the loan is the bank's asset, but the "money" in your account is the bank's liability, because the bank is on the hook when you want to withdraw that money.
Here's what happens when you take out a loan for $1000: your bank marks up your account by $1000, and counts your promissory note as an asset, worth, say, $1200 (principal + interest). The bank is instantly up $200 on paper.
You use your loan to buy something. The bank marks your account down by $1000, and the Fed transfers $1000 from your bank's reserve account to the reserve account of payee's bank. Both your bank's assets (the reserves) and liabilities (your account balance) go down by $1000, so overall, your bank is still up $200. But the reserves were a hard asset, "cash in hand," of your bank, while your note is a soft asset (not yet paid). If you default, your bank has to write off your note, and it will lose the $1000 in reserves that was transferred when you wrote a check (payee did nothing wrong here). If you instead repay your loan, your bank will end up with $1200 in reserves, and both your $1000 account balance and your note are extinguished - a profit of $200 in hard assets (reserves). That explains why bank debts must be repaid; because the bank takes a very real loss when you default.
Almost all of the money in our bank accounts is the product of open bank loans - mortgages, car loans, business loans, etc. (A small fraction is from government-created money.) We're riding a wave of credit; your debt is my money, and vice versa. Repay all of the principal, and there is no more money. All that is required for this to work is that people continue to repay (usually) their loans. Taken as a whole, it's just
servicing the large pile of credit, because the total debt seldom gets any smaller, and normally grows. Which is a good thing - when bank lending decreases and the pile shrinks, we normally go into recession. You could say that banks, too, count on "the full faith and credit" of their borrowers as a whole, because if they default, the whole system falls apart.
The story is similar, but not the same, with Treasury. Treasury issues bonds (promissory notes, if you like), held mostly by people, and spends the proceeds. Treasury has no problem servicing that debt, because they have both income from taxation and perfect credit. Everybody is happy.
Does the government have enough to "pay off" the principle? Yes, they do. But it's in our hands; we are holding it as savings. As government liabilities are extinguished through tax surpluses, the government could tax the crap out of its own economy (us), and ruin the economy in the process.
Does the government
need to "pay off" the principle? Of course not. Dollars and bonds are liabilities in the accounting sense only; no real resources were used to create them, no labor was spent, no raw materials were sold.