- Joined
- Dec 4, 2013
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- Liberal
What you call "bias" I call taking the body of available facts and deriving a position. Krugman has a liberal bend, as do I, because that's where the facts take us.What I find irrational is aligning oneself with Krugman's views even after evidence that he is among the most, if not the most, politically biased economic columnist. You simply cannot establish credibility with his type of track record.
I've already posted links to evidence showing that tax cuts can boost the economy, and explained to you how a larger work force can create like revenue even after individual tax cuts.
Sometimes, I get the feeling that some folks are so politically biased, that no amount of evidence will result in them considering other opinions.
The "evidence" that you mention above, was about John F. Kennedy cutting the tax-rate and noticing economic growth. What's telling about that is not that correlation isn't evidence of causation but that you needed to go back 56 years to find something that helps your case. What you conveniently ignored was the many, many examples since then that find no correlation between tax-cuts and economic growth. Among that evidence was all modern presidents plus the state of Kansas, that slashed taxes, got no economic benefit, but did blow a huge hole in their deficit. You can pretend that you are objective and have no bias but the reality is that you are biased to prove that tax-cuts are the magic elixir that boosts economic output. As such, you are willing to grasp for any straw that helps your argument while brushing aside any evidence to the contrary.
My question is why? I can understand that if you were a millionaire or billionaire, you'd try to make whatever case that you can for why middle-class American should support tax-cuts on the rich. If we assume that you are middle-class, then why do you have a desire to shill for the elite -- arguing against the tide of evidence that concludes that such tax-cuts are of no help and probably hurt the country?