You've missed the central point which is that the Constitution does not allow the Federal government to compel the states to an action not shown to be within its purview. Only by the widest possible interpretation can marriage be considered within the purview of the Federal government. Using the logic applied to marriage, the states can apparently control next to nothing when the Constitution was actually designed to let them control most things with a narrow and select few reserved to the Federal government. Ironically, one of those things is immigration law and enforcement yet some states repeatedly interfere with it. Funny how liberals and Democrats have no problem in that case.
Oh my friend, the number of points you've missed is astounding. You're really not very good at this. So, how is the federal government compelling a State to
take any action? What it is actually doing is
prohibiting a State to take an action
prohibited by the Constitution. You didn't follow any of that previous post, did you? Your thinking is antebellum.
Literally. You've completely, utterly ignored the whole point/existence of the 14th Amendment. Or does it just not "count" because it refutes your position. Let's try one more time: if a State does something, like conduct marriages, the 14th Amendment
requires that it do it equally to all citizens. To deny a
right, or State benefit, it must have a compelling reason. You can't come up with one, so you ignore that.
Then, apparently to demonstrate your utter inability to grasp basic logic functions, you immediately take the opposite position in the next sentence. If immigrating is a federal function and the federal government can't make States do something
as you just argued, how is that a State
not enforcing federal law a violation of anything? In addition to being a non sequitur, it is a ccomplete contradiction of your previous position. How can one respond to a post if you can't get to the end of a paragraph without resorting to.. One, two, three... separate fallacies?