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Why would there be? The people of the state, through their elected representatives, selected the method by which their electors would be chosen, as they are Constitutionally allowed to do.
I don't think there's a very strong legal argument against it.
It would depend on if they are overriding the votes of their People. For instance, if it's as arbitrary as you claim, could the State Government simply say its state's EC votes will be cast as dictated by the Governor of that State? Could the State sell it's EC Votes to Corporations?