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If supporting unlimited political spending, which gives the wealthy a political megaphone and the poor a taped mouth, is defended by conservatives as "freedom of speech", would you also support religious freedom being relative to one's religious spending? In other words, should the rich have a right to practice religion that the poor do not?
It's a little hypocritical that speech is considered a commodity to be purchased and enjoyed, especially, by the rich but religion isn't.
Could you explain why it's not a case of supreme douchebaggery to allow either to define our attitudes?
It's a little hypocritical that speech is considered a commodity to be purchased and enjoyed, especially, by the rich but religion isn't.
Could you explain why it's not a case of supreme douchebaggery to allow either to define our attitudes?