Taking my remark out of context is a rather illogical form of argumentation. Here is my entire commentary....
I didn't miss any context at all. That additional sentence doesn't matter, because as best I can tell, it's not even remotely correct.
As best I can determine, the phrase "non-speech fact" has absolutely no meaning whatsoever in American jurisprudence.
Pickering v Board set up two tests for public employees to qualify for 1st Amendment protection:
1) The speech must address a matter of public concern
2) The employee must demonstrate that their 1st Amendment interests outweigh the employer's efficiency interests -- e.g. it cannot impede discipline or harmony among co-workers; and it doesn't damage close work relationships where trust and confidence are critical; it can't interfere with daily operations.
3) After
Garcetti, public speech pursuant to the employee's work duties is generally not protected.
In this particular case, the teacher passes the 1st and 3rd points, and plausibly (but not certainly) fails the 2nd. If students, parents or teachers had a reasonable expectation of being reported to ICE by this teacher, that would very likely fail the 2nd point above.
If you meant "non-speech
act," then you are still incorrect. Teachers can be fired for a broad range of public statements, even if there is no other act associated with the speech. E.g. a teacher who publicly supports reducing the age of consent to 12 is almost certainly going to get fired, even if the teacher has never acted at any time on that belief. The speech alone is sufficient to be classified as disruptive.
Irrelevant as I did not say otherwise.
Yes, you did. You said that all
speech is protected (which is not correct), and that only "non-speech facts" (or possibly "acts" if it was a typo) could be grounds for disciplinary action.
They should and they do in those states where no laws exist protecting private employees speech outside the work place. Whether public employees have "significantly expanded protections for their speech" in relation to those laws protecting private employee speech will be contingent upon the exact protections offered to private employees under the law of the state.
And again, I see no particular reason why merely being an employee of the state automatically grants an individual greater 1st Amendment protections. Or, as I put it earlier in the thread: I see little benefit to providing
weaker 1st Amendment protections to private employees.
Employees should be treated like employees, even if they work for the state. If we want to put in greater protections for employees -- such as protecting potentially controversial speech -- then that ought to apply to
all employees, not just the ones who work for the state.