- Joined
- Sep 17, 2005
- Messages
- 8,211
- Reaction score
- 4,179
- Location
- Chicago
- Gender
- Male
- Political Leaning
- Libertarian
For what reason? It seems to be selective incorporation of raw data that doesn't analyze the multiple variables that could alter crime rates and therefore doesn't actually measure the connection between firearm prevalence and crime. To do that, you'd need something like Duggan's More guns, more crime:
:shrug:
It'd be nice if I could actually examine this study in detail. However, I can already determine by the language used in the abstract that the evidence is strictly correlative. Certainly not definitive proof of anything.