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What is the double standard then?
?? That a drunk man can rape a drunken women and be found guilty of rape because the drunken woman is deemed not to be able to give consent. Yet the drunk man can be convicted of rape even though he's not in his right mind? I'm assuming THAT must be what's being bandied. Ha!
I'm going to make an assumption that it would be very difficult for a woman to prove rape if they were both drunk. Sans witnesses, she's probably screwed. :rofl (Accident, I swear!) But that's not what this particular case is about, is it? She was unfreakin'conscious! And there were witnesses. There's no double standard here.
And do I assume, then, that you find it wrong to convict someone of murder if they were drunk? Or vehicular homicide if they were drunk behind the wheel? There's no double standard. If there is, please to explain it to me.
there is no double standard in this case due to the circumstances. That doesn't mean that there is not, in general, a double standard when it comes to expectations of sexual behavior from drunken men and drunken women.
As a college student, a teacher and a cop, I have seen many cases where both parties were drunk off their ass and had sex and then the next morning she has "buyer's remorse" and claims she was raped. she is considered a victim because she was too drunk to give consent and he is considered a rapist and "should have known better" even though he was as drunk or more drunk than she was.