Ask and you shall receive. This is one of my favorite economic teachers, Bill Mitchell.
"When expenditure is increasing, the average country-year unit of observation in our data registers less than 1.5 events. When expenditure cuts reach 1% or more of GDP, this grows to nearly 2 events, a relative increase by almost a third compared to the periods of budget expansion. As cuts intensify, the frequency of disturbances rises. Once austerity measures involve expenditure reductions by 5% or more, there are more than 3 events per year and country — twice as many as in times of expenditure increases."
I blame the British government for the riots | Bill Mitchell – billy blog
So the UK has a riot because of police stupidity against a minority and society is collapsing?
Okay based on this, then the US has been in societal collapse since the LA Riots over Rodney King.
As for this economist and his views. They are valid but far from all encumbsing nor are they mind boggling.
First off, instability in society always happens when there is an economic downturn. This can be seen in racist attacks and the rise of far right nationalistic groups. It is nothing new. Hitler came to power because of economic instability in the world, also brought on by in large part.. the US.. and of course their failed war.. but still.
But saying that it is because of austerity is a tad rich because in no way can he factor out the economic downturn aspect from any results. The only way he can confirm this theory is by some government cutting spending during boom years, and that rare happens as we all know. Most governments run on deficits, usually minor.
So what I am saying, he can claim that the riots in the UK and Greece are because of austerity measures, but he leaves out other alternative reasons. For example, the riot in the UK was not because of austerity, but was started because of the police ****ing up a case involving a black man. Maybe he can explain why there was no riots under the former government who also had austerity measures? Could it maybe be that the common factor of the riots in the UK is... the Tory party and their policies? If you actually look at a list of British riots (not counting prison riots), then there is an over weight of riots during Tory governments... hmmmz.
And as for Greece.. here too he has a big problem. There were riots all the time before the crisis. Usually between anarchist students and police, but they were there.
And then there is Portugal, Italy and Spain.. countries hit by broad austerity measures, and yet no riots or unrest? How does he explain that?