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Federal Gay Marriage Ban Is Ruled Unconstitutional

Essentially, the right involved here would be the right to enter into a contract, correct?
If that were the case, and there were not more to it than that, why then cannot people enter ito the marriage contract in states that do not allow gay marriage?

The right to enter into a contract does not include the right to enter into ANY contract.
 
The institution has been around for melenia, so of course the State was going to define how it was going to regard marriage when the state came around.
You can say you are married to whomever you want - if you aren't married according to the laws that create the legal institution or marriage, you arent legally married.

Given that the entire issue revolves around marriage as a legal institition, no other context need be considered.

If you can only enter into a legal condtion because the state created that legal condition and conditionally allows you to enter it, then there's no way to soundly argue that you have a right to enter into said legal condition.
 
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If that were the case, and there were not more to it than that, why then cannot people enter ito the marriage contract in states that do not allow gay marriage?

From what I can tell, the way this is all set up, the States aren't actually allowed to ban gay marriage, per se. They can merely define the legal term "marriage" as it exists in the marriage contract.
 
If that were the case, and there were not more to it than that, why then cannot people enter ito the marriage contract in states that do not allow gay marriage?

The right to enter into a contract does not include the right to enter into ANY contract.

Once again it has become necessary to point out that no right is absolute, universal or without limit. You have the right o free speech, that doesn't mean you can threaten the President. You have the right to free religious practice, that doesn't mean you can sacrifice humans or animals. You have the right o keep and carry, that doesn't mean you can have a missile. You have the right to marry, that doesn't mean your daughter is on the market. etc, etc, ad nauseoum.
 
Sounds to me that this is a Peoples Republic of Mass deal......I would not worry to much about it....Prop 8 will end up in the SCOTUS and will be upheld by a 5 to 4 vote....Hopefully that will end it..........
 
From what I can tell, the way this is all set up, the States aren't actually allowed to ban gay marriage, per se. They can merely define the legal term "marriage" as it exists in the marriage contract.
I would entertain the argument that the 14th amendment may prohibit states from only allowing hetero couples to get married, but this would require that it is unconstitutional for a state to discriminate against homosexuals when granting its privileges. I am not aware of any such plenary ruling.
 
Once again it has become necessary to point out that no right is absolute, universal or without limit. You have the right o free speech, that doesn't mean you can threaten the President. You have the right to free religious practice, that doesn't mean you can sacrifice humans or animals. You have the right o keep and carry, that doesn't mean you can have a missile. You have the right to marry, that doesn't mean your daughter is on the market. etc, etc, ad nauseoum.
If the contract you want to enter into can only exist because the state creates the conditions tha allows it, then, in that contract, you are still only enjoying a privilege.

As I said -- if there weren't more to it than the right to contract, then there'd be no discussion.
 
I would entertain the argument that the 14th amendment may prohibit states from only allowing hetero couples to get married, but this would require that it is unconstitutional for a state to discriminate against homosexuals when granting its privileges. I am not aware of any such plenary ruling.

I wasn't going there, but that is an interesting point.

What I meant was that states can't ban specifc people from getting married to each other (as in going through a ceremony of some sort and pledging to be permanently bonded to each other in a relationship commonly refered to as "marriage"). They can only define the way that the state views the terminilogy present in the legal contract that is often included in that relationship.
 
What I meant was that states can't ban specifc people from getting married to each other (as in going through a ceremony of some sort and pledging to be permanently bonded to each other in a relationship commonly refered to as "marriage"). They can only define the way that the state views the terminilogy present in the legal contract that is often included in that relationship.
1: No, but it can prohibit certain clases of people from getting married.
2: Otherwise, true, but if there weren't more to it than that -- that is, if we're discussing a simple contract between people and we arent discussing the institutional and legal framework that defines the terms and limits and procedures and benefits and protections provided within the instutition of marriage -- then there's no issue here.

You have the right enter into a private contract with someone that provides all of the terms and benefits or a marriage - but we all know that doing so does not (necessarily) create a marriage under the law.
 
Re: Federal Gay Marriage Ban is Ruled Unconstitutional

That's all the state deals with now...soooo...changing the name is pointless.

You're saying the state shouldn't recognize what has been ruled to be a Fundamental Right, that the state should leave this right to private entities and not protect it.

What other rights do you suppose the State shouldn't protect?

First, are you suggesting that everything that has been ruled a fundamental right is unquestionably a fundamental right in exactly the way its been ruled? Just wanting to get that on the table first and foremost Jerry.

Second, I don't believe in a fundamental "right" of marriage because marriage in and of itself is a man made creation. I believe fundamental rights are ones that can be exercised without the aid of anything else or through a social contract. To me, "fundamental rights are the right to life (which thus includes defense. Everyone has the right to attempt to live), the right to liberty (freedom is the natural construct and no person should be forced to surrender that unwillingly), and the persuit of happiness (which includes attempting to gain monetary or tangible things without infringing upon someone elses rights). Anything beyond that to me would be a different kidn of right than "Fundamental", for example I view the right to bear arms a CONSTITUTIONAL right, not a fundamental one.

Third, I do not believe marriage is a constitutional right. I disagree with the courts on this one. I'm a strict constructionist generally and not one that only uses the term when its the 2nd amendment being talked about. While I believe people have a constitutional right to join together, IE essentially assembly, I see no constitutional right that mandates the state must give you preferencial treatment or recognize your union in any way shape or form.

Fourth, I do however believe that its in the interest of the state for a variety of reasons to recognize a union of two people. From taxes, property, power of attorny, etc there are a lot of reasonable reasons why its in the states interest to allow for this kind of thing. And I do think that if they recognize unions then, under equal protection, there is a constitutional right that if they are going to recognize a union of two people then people have a right to enter into such unions. IE the government can not say "You 5 people can enter into various unions, but you, Bob, you're not allowed". Its kind of like one of those things where if a law was passed that mandated everyone was allowed to have internet access that'd become a "right". Not a fundamental right, not a constitutional right, but a right as a citizen of the U.S. As such they couldn't then decide that "actually, um, males aren't allowed access".

As it stands, if "marriage" is going to be used by the government then when speaking of it in regards to a government setting it has ZERO religious meaning. That means whatever religious traditions may be connected to it and what kind of infringement someone may think rules regarding it would have on religion is irrelevant, because in regards to the government its a 100% SECULAR term because our government is secular. As such, the notion that "its always been a man and woman" is irrelevant when it comes to the government because there is no overriding law or ruling with regards to government laws that says "laws that are one way must always be that way". As such there is no need for "defense of marriage" because its simply a secular government term for a government sponsored union, and under equal protection said unions should not be barred from people of specific classes of people. This includes discrimination towards sex, suggesting that the only benefit the government has in regards to combined tax laws, property laws, etc is when a man and woman are involved.

As such, there is any talk about the "Sanctity" of marriage is irrelevent because its not a sacred nor religious thing in this discussion, its a secular thing of the state. The only way to actually make it sacred would be to remove it from the secular wording all together and thus allow it once more to fall into the hands of religion and religion alone.

By seperating "Marriage" from the governmental terms you successfully assure its sanctity by making every individual religion or church having full and complete control over "marriage" with the government simply having domain over "unions" that bestow upon them recognition and benefits from the state.

Any religious arguments, sanctity arguments, tradition arguments are irrelevant in regards to marriage as a secular, governmental term. If the concern is truly about the sanctity of marriage the only way to legally and realistically allow for it is to remove it and give it back to the religions as the sole definition of the word, for as long as its a word in the government the RELIGIOUS meanings of the word are 100% irrelevant when talking about it under the auspices of its affects with regards to the government.
 
Re: Federal Gay Marriage Ban is Ruled Unconstitutional

Well yeah until you want automatic inheritance, tax deduction, hospital visitation, spousal privilege or any of the other rights and privileges provided for marriage.

Irrelevant in this discussion. If Marriage is no longer a state entity, as in the term, then if you get married at a church and that church views you as married it matters NOTHING to the state and you don't get those benefits.

If you chose to ALSO enter into a "civil union" with regards to the state, then you'd get those benefits.

The suggestion is making Civil Union = Government, Marriage = Private.

I've tried telling pro-gm that many times before. They don't accept it.

And they shouldn't. As long as "marriage" is the governments term for a union, under equal protection they should be able to access it and all the benefits the government has deemed to be a right of marriage. If the government passes a law decrying a certain right unto its citizens then based on the constitution they can not discriminate in the application of said right. By limiting it to male/female unions you are discriminating by gender by specifically requiring individual genders for the right to be garnered. IE females ONLY have the choice of a male, males ONLY have the choice of a female, thus making their choices unequal.
 
I would entertain the argument that the 14th amendment may prohibit states from only allowing hetero couples to get married, but this would require that it is unconstitutional for a state to discriminate against homosexuals when granting its privileges. I am not aware of any such plenary ruling.

Doesn't have to be heterosexual.

We recognize that gender and racial discrimination is prohibited then.

So lets say there was a ruling that said Marriage is between One White and One Black. This would mean Whites could only marry Blacks and Blacks could only marry whites. Would that be okay?

Similarly we have a situation where there's a ruling that Marriage is only between One Man and One Woman. Thus it means men can only marry women and women can only marry men.

If it'd be discriminating to tell an individual race they could only associate with another individual race, why is it not discriminating to tell an individual gender they can only associate with anotehr individual gender?
 
Just for reference, here is the text of the complete ruling.

Ruling.
 
Just for reference, here is the text of the complete ruling.

Ruling.

Thank you. Fascinating reading and I am just getting started:

As of December 31, 2003, there were at least “a total of 1,138 federal statutory provisions classified to the United States Code in which marital status is a factor in determining or receiving benefits, rights, and privileges,” according to estimates from the General Accounting Office
 
Doesn't have to be heterosexual.
We recognize that gender and racial discrimination is prohibited then.
Yes... but then it has been held that a state cannot discriminate based on race and gender.
No such holding exists for sexual orientation.
 
Sounds to me that this is a Peoples Republic of Mass deal......I would not worry to much about it....Prop 8 will end up in the SCOTUS and will be upheld by a 5 to 4 vote....Hopefully that will end it..........

Hah. You really think people are going to stop fighting for equal rights? Has history every shown that to happen?

I know, you don't consider it a right. But they do. I do too. It's not going to stop.
 
1: No, but it can prohibit certain clases of people from getting married.
2: Otherwise, true, but if there weren't more to it than that -- that is, if we're discussing a simple contract between people and we arent discussing the institutional and legal framework that defines the terms and limits and procedures and benefits and protections provided within the instutition of marriage -- then there's no issue here.

You have the right enter into a private contract with someone that provides all of the terms and benefits or a marriage - but we all know that doing so does not (necessarily) create a marriage under the law.

Only if the government has a legitimate state interest in doing so. I have yet to hear anyone put forth a "legitimate" interest that the government has to prohibit gay marriage that doesn't involve people's religious beliefs.

Religion cannot be the basis of state sponsored bigotry.
 
Yes... but then it has been held that a state cannot discriminate based on race and gender.
No such holding exists for sexual orientation.

Again, as I said, this could be looked at as gender discrimination.

If I said Blacks could only marry Whites and Whites could only marry Blacks would that not be discriminating on race?

Then how is saying men only marrying women and women only marrying men not gender discrimination?
 
Only if the government has a legitimate state interest in doing so.
You refer to my statement that :

1: No, but it can prohibit certain clases of people from getting married.

Whatever else you want to argue, above, the statement is still true.

The fact that -you- havent heard any such reason isn't meaningful, that you will likely refuse to accept any argument as such is telling, and should you be supllied with some such irrefuteably argument, you'd move the goalpost.
 
Again, as I said, this could be looked at as gender discrimination.
I suppose so, but that's certainly not one the arguments that have been presented.
Given that, there must be a flaw somewhere.
 
Did I mention this is fascinating reading?

Turns out that here are two Veteran's cemeteries in Mass., and the VA gave, and continues to give significant money to the state for those as part of a federal program. The law allows for vet's, their spouses, and certain of their children to be buried there. If Mass violates these rules, the VA can(and threatened to) take back all the money they have spent for the cemeteries. Since Mass allows gay marriage, but the federal government does not allow it, a gay couple can be married in Mass, but not be buried together in one of these cemeteries, under penalty to the state of several million dollars.

Still reading, more to come.
 
And more:

Marital status is a relevant factor in determining whether an individual is eligible for coverage by MassHealth.83 The Commonwealth asserts that, because of DOMA, federal law requires MassHealth to assess eligibility for same-sex spouses as though each were single, a mandate which has significant financial consequences for the state.84 In addition, the Commonwealth cannot obtain federal funding for expenditures made for coverage provided to same-sex spouses who do not qualify for Medicaid when assessed as single, even though they would qualify if assessed as married.85

~10 characters~
 
And now into the decision itself:

In the companion case, Gill et al. v. Office of Pers. Mgmt. et al.
, No. 09-cv-10309-JLT (D. Mass. July 8, 2010) (Tauro, J.), this court held that DOMA violates the equal protection principles embodied in the Due Process Clause of the Fifth Amendment. There, this court found that DOMA failed to pass constitutional muster under rational basis scrutiny, the most highly deferential standard of review.141 That analysis, which this court will not reiterate here, is equally
applicable in this case. DOMA plainly conditions the receipt of federal funding on the denial of marriage-based benefits to same-sex married couples, though the same benefits are provided to similarly-situated heterosexual couples. By way of example, the Department of Veterans Affairs informed the Commonwealth in clear terms that the federal government is entitled to “recapture” millions in federal grants if and when the Commonwealth opts to bury the same-sex spouse of a
veteran in one of the state veterans cemeteries, a threat which, in essence, would penalize the Commonwealth for affording same-sex married couples the same benefits as similarly-situated heterosexual couples that meet the criteria for burial in Agawam or Winchendon. Accordingly, this court finds that DOMA induces the Commonwealth to violate the equal protection rights of its citizens.

And so, as DOMA imposes an unconstitutional condition on the receipt of federal funding, this court finds that the statute contravenes a well-established restriction on the exercise of Congress’ spending power. Because the government insists that DOMA is founded in this federal power and no other, this court finds that Congress has exceeded the scope of its authority.
 
And finally:

This court has determined that it is clearly within the authority of the Commonwealth to recognize same-sex marriages among its residents, and to afford those individuals in same-sex marriages any benefits, rights, and privileges to which they are entitled by virtue of their marital status. The federal government, by enacting and enforcing DOMA, plainly encroaches upon the firmly entrenched province of the state, and, in doing so, offends the Tenth Amendment. For that reason, the statute is invalid.

As I read it, historically, defining what is marriage is up to the states, and the federal government has no business getting into it. Now this of course races the question in my mind...what about Loving[/i]? If the federal government cannot get into defining marriage, then how was Loving ruled that way?
 
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