It was reasonably obvious to the Southern States that the only way that they could maintain their economic system was if Mr. Lincoln had committed to vetoing any legislation which abolished slavery. Given the distribution of legislative seats, that simply wasn't going to happen.
Lincoln supported the Corwin Amendment, which would have expressly protected slavery in a state in which it already existed. He didn't believe Congress had the authority to abolish slavery, and never expressed such a view. If you disagree, quote him, but I don't think you can.
The
Republican platform of 1860 also recognized the authority of existing states to maintain slavery.
Indeed, that was what they believed. Mind you, that was merely an extension of the attitude towards "Blacks" and "Indians" that was prevalent in the entire country.
Except for the majority that elected Lincoln, I guess....
Being a "voluntary organization of states who could come and go as they pleased" is NOT a bar to "being a country".
It's fine (and I'm taking your word for it) that Canadian provinces can come and go as they please, but there is no provision in OUR Constitution for walking away.
And just at a practical level, I cannot declare my house the Country of Jasper and secede and therefore declare my independence from the city, state and national governments. Why not? If Tennessee can do it, why can't I claim my personal bit of property that I own free and clear to be 'independent' territory?
All good questions and all of which (other than the "right to secede" [which is an inherent right]) would have had to have been dealt with through negotiations.
It's not an 'inherent' right because someone declares it so. Where is this 'inherent right' codified? When does a person or group of people acquire this inherent right to secede? See above. If not individually, then can I form a town of 12 people and secede?
What's kind of fantastic is the states' rights argument is for the 'inherent right' for white people to secede, so those white people could continue to deny blacks the, what seems FAR more obviously "inherent" right to me, not be born into slavery, and their kids born into slavery, with no human rights of any kind!
So no ****ing surprise, the principle is "inherent rights for white people, but
NO RIGHTS FOR THEE, N*****S!"
Since there was no FEDERAL law banning slavery, then there was no "Constitutional" prohibition on slavery either. That means that any of the Northern states could repeal their State laws banning slavery whenever they felt like doing so. The fact that it was incredibly unlikely that they would do so is not relevant to the fact that they had legislative competence to do so.
OK. :shrug:
The point (which I apologize for not making clear enough) is that the "Racism Issue" extended FAR beyond the boundaries of the "Slavery Issue" and the termination of slavery had next to no impact of racism.
The socioeconomic status of "The Negro" in the Southern states was not substantially improved simply because slavery was banned (and a case can be made that it was actually worsened). The socioeconomic status of "The Negro" in the Northern states was not substantially improved simply because slavery was banned (admittedly it doesn't appear to have been much worsened).
I don't have patience with and won't engage with "slavery was good or neutral for slaves." PRISON would be a socioeconomic improvement for many poor, and all the homeless - food, lodging, AC and heat, bed, pillow, running water, TV, healthcare! We've made prisoners better off!! said no one seriously ever.