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SCOTUS blog: DOMA Unconstitutional

Isn't that the purpose of analyzing the Supreme Court decision? There are certainly indications in their decision that seem to indicate and even invite nationwide challenges....and unless the idealogy of the Supreme Court shifts over the next few years, it certainly is a clear sign of hope for an end to discrimination nation-wide.

I'm not opposed to sanctioning gay marriage, if the government has to be involved - it's only fair - however, I don't see how this ruling leads to your conclusion. If the court ruled that the state's definition of marriage cannot be abrogated by the federal government, how is it that the court would later rule that a state's definition of marriage can be abrogated by another state's definition?
 
Isn't that the purpose of analyzing the Supreme Court decision? There are certainly indications in their decision that seem to indicate and even invite nationwide challenges....and unless the idealogy of the Supreme Court shifts over the next few years, it certainly is a clear sign of hope for an end to discrimination nation-wide.

There is, but as the people over at SCOTUS blog who I dare say I beleive are FAR more intelligent, educated, and untouched by significant bias in this than the vast majority of those discussing this on this forum...there are significant indications out of these rulings that point in BOTH directions
 
Well then...thats good. Gay marriage is legal in Ohio then.

The federal statute is invalid, for no
legitimate purpose overcomes the purpose and effect to
disparage and to injure those whom the State, by its marriage laws, sought to protect in personhood and dignity.
By seeking to displace this protection and treating those
persons as living in marriages less respected than others,
the federal statute is in violation of the Fifth Amendment.
This opinion and its holding are confined to those lawful
marriages.

Which means the federal government can't redefine what the state has already defined. You are misinterpreting the decision.
 
I specifically states there is overlap. In your example of the catholic church, you are looking at the practical, while ignoring the theoretical, which is that states are not required to recognize those marriages. If the catholic church decides to marry people that the state does not recognize as married, which is entirely possible if unlikely, then you would have your separation. Overlap is there, but they are still separate.

Absolutely, I agree - but my original point was related to the practical. In my view, churches will move back and eliminate their involvement in the state sanctioned aspects of performing marriages to ensure that they are not forced to participate in marriages contrary to their faith's teachings. As a result, as a practical consequence, there will likely come a time when religious citizens will have to go through two ceremonies, one in their church and one civilly, in order to be "registered" in both - that is far less practical and far more inconvenient than the situation now.
 
There is, but as the people over at SCOTUS blog who I dare say I beleive are FAR more intelligent, educated, and untouched by significant bias in this than the vast majority of those discussing this on this forum...there are significant indications out of these rulings that point in BOTH directions, which is most likely the realistic notion regarding this seeing as they're 5-4 decisions with a swing individual who often tends to lean one direction in a ruling for reasons that seemingly benefit the other direction.

But you have to agree that there are clearly at this time 5 votes for nation-wide gay marriage. That could change...but it is highly unlikely. Kennedy clearly indicated that there is no legitimate basis for a state to limit marriage to straights only. Who else in the 5 could be the swing vote?
 
Dude. I'm a fairly socially conservative fellow who agrees that as a society we tend to rush to reaffirm whatever a gay person does or says about sexuality, and that this enables and encourages victimish behavior... but even I'll come to YS's defense on that one - there was nothing victimish about the section you quoted - but rather an actual discussion of the ruling.

She's suggesting that un-married straight couples have rights that un-married gay couples do not. Anyone with any sense knows that that isn't true. To believe it is, is victimization.
 
She's suggesting that un-married straight couples have rights that un-married gay couples do not. Anyone with any sense knows that that isn't true. To believe it is, is victimization.

:roll: She asked if a couple married in a different state would fall under that states' provisions or their state of residence. I've been wondering the same thing (and may even have asked it myself).
 
Which means the federal government can't redefine what the state has already defined. You are misinterpreting the decision.

Not at all. The court said that the federal government must recognize what the states have defined....but Kennedy, who is widely recognized as the swing vote, clearly indicated that the 5th amendment requires equal protection and there is no legitimate state interest in restricting marriages to straights only, which certainly invites a challenge and indicates pretty clearly that the Court is likely to strike any restriction in the states to "straight only" marriages as unconstitutional. It remains for another day, but the writing is pretty clearly on the wall. Kennedy is cementing his place in history and he is the only hope for those who favor discrimination in the marriage arena.
 
He did tell us actually, repeatedly.
IMHO He did not tell us, explicitly; but for some reason He would rather whisper
into the ear of a priest who alone is able to tell us what He said.
 
What I read was awhile ago, and my memory at my advanced age is not perfect. I would like YS to clarify what she is asking a bit, and then, well, there are lots of details still needing answers.

Basically, my thought process is that since they struck DOMA down on the basis of equality, it sets court precedence, and that all laws prohibiting SSM could be seen in the same light.
 
:roll: She asked if a couple married in a different state would fall under that states' provisions or their state of residence. I've been wondering the same thing (and may even have asked it myself).

That's not what I got from her comments. If I misunderstood, then I'll acquiesce, but I'm just going on my own interpretation of the post.
 
There's a reason that this sort of remark doesn't belong in rigorous and reasonable debate. Let me show you why: your reply is just conservative (libertarian/green party/socialist/fascist/whatever) BS.

I can type that sort of thing all day. So can you. So can anybody. It's cheap, it plays on people's prejudices and emotions, and doesn't add anything to the conversation.

I disagree. Acting to restrict what people can and cannot do implies an ought. If I restrict people from, say, owning monkeys, I am implying that people ought not to own monkeys.


No doubt. But that's irrelevant.

And why doesn't he? If he doesn't, there is an implied ought, and a moral dimension to the issue.

I'm curious how you'd support this point. It seems that you're saying that the law was struck down purely to grant uneven privileges to liberal groups. If that's your point, I'd like to see how you argue for it. If it isn't, please clarify.

My reply isn't "conservative" BS.

We wouldn't be having this conversation if gays weren't an extreme liberal group.
 
But you have to agree that there are clearly at this time 5 votes for nation-wide gay marriage. That could change...but it is highly unlikely. Kennedy clearly indicated that there is no legitimate basis for a state to limit marriage to straights only. Who else in the 5 could be the swing vote?

And if anything, the court is likely to get more liberal. If one conservative judge leaves a vacancy within the next 3 years, it will swing to 6-3.
 
Basically, my thought process is that since they struck DOMA down on the basis of equality, it sets court precedence, and that all laws prohibiting SSM could be seen in the same light.

I wouldn't make that jump - what the ruling says, as I understand it, is that the state has the right to define marriage and the federal government has no authority to nullify or alter that definition. The ruling does not say that one state's definition must be accepted by all states or that all states must sanction gay marriage because one or any state does.
 
But you have to agree that there are clearly at this time 5 votes for nation-wide gay marriage. That could change...but it is highly unlikely. Kennedy clearly indicated that there is no legitimate basis for a state to limit marriage to straights only. Who else in the 5 could be the swing vote?

Hehe, well, last time I checked the federal government legislates from the congress, not the Supreme Court. Good luck trying to get 535 legislators to agree on that. Right now as it stands the federal government does not have a position on gay marriage, or any marriage - as in my opinion, this ruling makes any federal marriage law moot when applied to the states, and anyone not employed by the federal government.


Tim-
 
And if anything, the court is likely to get more liberal. If one conservative judge leaves a vacancy within the next 3 years, it will swing to 6-3.

Yes...this is why the last election was so important. I thank God every day that Obama was re-elected to ensure that our Supreme Court does not fall into the hands of the activist Roberts/Scalia/Alito/Thomas agenda.
 
Hehe, well, last time I checked the federal government legislates from the congress, not the Supreme Court. Good luck trying to get 535 legislators to agree on that. Right now as it stands the federal government does not have a position on gay marriage, or any marriage - as in my opinion, this ruling makes any federal marriage law moot when applied to the states, and anyone not employed by the federal government.


Tim-

You are correct. However, there is no need to have congressional legislation. There are 5 clear votes on the Supreme Court that there is no legitimate state interest in limiting marriage to "straights only". The days of marriage discrimination are numbered. States can try to continue to discriminate but there will be a ruling in the very near future striking down discrimination for once and all. The writing is clearly on the wall.
 
But you have to agree that there are clearly at this time 5 votes for nation-wide gay marriage. That could change...but it is highly unlikely. Kennedy clearly indicated that there is no legitimate basis for a state to limit marriage to straights only. Who else in the 5 could be the swing vote?

While his current notion is that, there's no indication how strongly he feels regarding that nor how he weighs his particular view on that in relation to the notion of the states rights to set its marriage laws. Leaning one way or another is one thing, but there's no "slam dunk" type of reading here where all signs point one way or another.
 
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