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Please stop making a fool of yourself, what were the loopholes in those higher tax rates thus the effective rate that the rich paid, higher or lower than now? I posted a chart showing tax revenue and of course you ignored it.
As I've previously shown, your chart did not include the effective tax rates, nor did it address the cuts that have been made since in investment returns and Estate taxes.
If you feel that taxes for the rich were lower in the 50's and 60's, I guess that would mean you would have no problem returning to those rates, is that correct?