...The gospels are written in the third person. None starts any sentence with the word "I..."...
Basic composition, no matter the language:
- The third person is used to tell of someone other than oneself because it places focus on the actor, not the writer. One writes autobiographies in the first person; one writes biographies and novellas in the third person. The gospels aren't biographies in the modern sense because there's too much of Jesus' life on which they're silent; consequently, they are best thought of as abridged biographical novellas...Biographical in their compositional structure and because they relate tales about a person who lived, abridged due to their incompleteness with regard to Jesus' life, or and novellas due to their incongruence in the depiction of events. In any case, the Gospels are Jesus'/God's stories, not Matthew, Mark, Luke and John's stories.
The gospels contradict each other.
They absolutely do. One must understand the the times, the synoptic nature of Matt, Mark and Luke and consider the intended audiences of each author.
It's recognized that Mark's gospel was the first, and as go literal details likely is the most accurate. Mark's gospel may be taken as a "baseline" of sorts. Matt and Luke were obviously proselytists who had clear rhetorical purposes:
- Matt wrote his gospel to convince Jews of the verity of Jesus' divinity and status as the Savior for whom Jews awaited. (Jews today still await their savior.) Accordingly, Matt's gospel is rife with symbology that would have "clicked" in Jews' minds and helped them see that Jesus is the savior/messiah the Old Testament prophesied. One can call Matt's the gospel for Jews.
- Luke, on the other hand, aimed rhetorically to convince gentiles that Jesus was divine and the Savior. Thus Luke imbued his gospel with imagery that held meaning for gentiles. Luke's is the gospel for everyone.
There is also the matter of translation. Jesus likely spoke Aramaic; the gospels we have today are written in Greek. Taking Matt, and, for simple illustrative purposes, assuming he wrote his gospel in Greek (
he well may not have, but that's yet another confounding aspect of the matter) who was an apostle and thus spoke both Aramaic and Greek, it's highly likely, indeed normal, that he was more literate in one or the other of those languages; moreover, the languages likely don't have direct equivalents. For instance:
- I speak English, halting French, some Spanish and halting Mandarin, and on DP I write in English. One who wanted to translate my DP posts to any Romance language would have a relatively easy time directly translating the Latinate words I use; however, s/he'd have to be careful to capture in the foreign language the American English connotation as well as the denotation, and doing so may not allow for direct translation.
To wit, "prevaricate" and "prevaricar" (Spanish) are equivalent words denotationally; however, they may not be connotational equivalents. (I don't know whether they are.) To the extent they aren't thus equal, something literally will be lost in translation.
I have no idea what be the French term for prevaricate;however, online translators cite "tergiverser," but that term's definition is "hem and haw, procrastinate, or equivocate" all of which carry the connotation of "prevaricate," yet none conveys (more than tangentially) the core denotation of untruthfulness. Because of the "flip flop" in denotation and connotation, a writer/speaker of French and English would need to be equally fluent in both languages and thus include additional verbiage in the target language if s/he's to be 100% successful at conveying the full meaning of the source language.
The point of the above is to illustrate how translation itself constitutes a writer's dictional interpretation of both the source and target languages. The more translators, translations from one to the next language, the more interpretation and the more readers of the last translation are subject to the quality of each prior translator. One can see the same effect here on DP when one member paraphrases another's posts by writing, "so in other words,...." And that's poor expression/interpretation by supposedly fully fluent users of one language.
Other natural retelling factors contribute to the disparities among the synotics. In total or alone, however, the mere existence of inconsistencies doesn't compromise a story's general veracity; rather they show a tale's telling is some mix of incomplete and/or embellished.
Were the Gospel writers present during the "time of Jesus"? Simple answer -- NO.
You realize that Matthew was one of the 12 Apostles, right?