Re: Does Objective Morality Exist? && The Moral Argument
Already said that, now what other reasons cansomeone come to a different moral conclusion than you based on their moral experience?
You'd have to give an example of what you believe to be a "different moral conclusion" ... besides being psychopathic, people may be operating under different facts, so they come to a "different moral conclusion" (even though it isn't 'actually' different) as a result of those differing facts. I'm sure there are other reasons that one could dive into...
I have already explained several times that you your arguments are actually for subjective morality because they have a subjective basis.
Yes, you have, but if that position were true, then "honey is sticky" would be a purely subjective statement (thus NOT an objectively true statement) because "honey is sticky" would have the 'subjective basis' of my personal sensory experience. Since that's not the case, your objection fails.
And if you would respond with "we have inferential evidence for...", well, we didn't always have inferential evidence of that. There was a time when we based that objective truth on our personal sensory experience with it, and we were 100% justified in our belief of that objective truth. Honey was objectively sticky back then, and it is objectively sticky now. This shows that sensory experience and moral experience (properly basic beliefs) are 100% justifiable to believe as objective truth unless a defeater to that belief is presented. Your 'subjective basis' objection fails and has not convinced me that morality is subjective.
YOUR personal experience is inherently subjective it cannot be otherwise. Since you can only have a subjective measure when using a subjective basis your personal morals are inherently subjective. NOT objective
I understand why you assert what you do, and on the surface it makes complete sense, but as I've shown above, it ultimately fails.
Yes all the time, assuming we can be incorrect is a good way to learn. However as no one has ever come up with any argument for objective morals that doesn't have a subjective basis it seems pretty clear what the correct answer is.
Now Ill ask again have you ever considered that you may be wrong?
See my earlier refutation of the bolded part... and yes, I've considered it, but after diving into the philosophy behind
WHY I believe what I believe, I don't find that I am wrong. I'll ask again, have you ever considered that you may be wrong?
Your subjective belief in God and your subjective belief in what that perfect nature is, doesn't equate to objective morals it just means you are calling your subjective morals objective.
Your assertion that those subjective beliefs can not equate to the reality of objective morals fails (see my earlier refutation). It's not calling MY subjective morals objective, it's saying that GOD'S objective morals exist in reality, and can be known by us through our moral experience.
This isn't really a matter of my opinion vs your opinion it is a matter of facts.
True, but we seem to not be seeing those 'facts' in the same way.
Facts are that you are unable make any argument for objective morality without resorting to a subjective basis.
Given our current knowledge (unless I am missing something), I completely agree with you here.
Using a subjective basis means that the morals are subjective not objective.
This is where I completely disagree with you, as shown in my above refutation of this position that you hold.
If that were true, then using the subjective basis of sensory experience would mean that the stickiness of honey would be subjective, not objective. -- However, honey is objectively sticky, and that "subjectively based" belief has been further supported as objectively true by use of inferential evidence, so your objection fails.
I still find that I am, in the absence of a defeater, perfectly justified to use my moral experience to believe that objective morality exists in our perceived reality.