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Christ is a Gentile

what i dont understand is do they have a differently written bible or are these things that are 'folklore" im just really puzzled that even though it is all there in black and white they just seem to be oblivious to the truth......
kind of worrying,,,for some one to have such closed minds.
 
For the same reason neo-nazi's think the bible is talking about race wars or that the Phelps clan think it's talking about hating homosexuals. It's selective blindness.
Even in claiming that their Jesus is gentile, they can't acknowledge that it would mean he was a 'pagan'-worshipper of idols-as that would blow their minds.
WE know that as a 'rabbi' and believer in one god, that as the son of a jewish mother, who was the daughter of devotists, he has to be jewish. But a self-proclaimed Christian worship a Jew??? A fate worse than death to the bigots.....
 
The word "Ashkenazic" is derived from the Hebrew word for Germany. The word "Sephardic" is derived from the Hebrew word for Spain. The word "Mizrachi" is derived from the Hebrew word for Eastern.
Source: http://www.jewfaq.org/ashkseph.htm
After you have finished learning your gospels, read some Jewish history.
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True, the Sephardic jews are from Spain in recent history. I don't have the time to educate you on their prior history, so do another search and don't just stop at the first bit of misinformation you come to.

Genesis 10: 2 - 5. "The sons of Japheth: Gomer, and Magog, and Madai, and Javan, and Tubal, and Meshech, and Tiras. and the sons of Gomer: ASHKENAZ, AND Riphath, and Togarmah. And the sons of Javan: Elishah, and Tarshish, Kittim, and Dodanim. By these were THE ISLES OF THE GENTILE divided in their lands everyone after his tongue, after their families, in their nations [nations from the Latin translation meaning race].

As you can see, Ashkenaz was the son of Gomer. And according to the jewish King Joseph he was from the seed of JAPHETH, FROM THE SEED OF TOGARMAH, Japheth's grandson. He also said that Togarmah, who was the brother of ASHKENAZ, had ten sons and the KHAZARS represented the seventh son. These are the written words of a jewish king who surely would have known his lineage.

Modern jewism began about 1000 CE and is about 90% Ashkenazim. Once again, I am showing that the Christ was not a jew because jews did not exist. Even if He were a Judean - being from Judea; a citizen of Judea - it is obvious that He was not a jew.

After you have finished learning your gospels, read some Jewish history.
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Might surprise you that I already have.
 
Well, since you're basically wrong on every aspect, yea, any learning you've done would surprise me.
Orthodoxy has nothing to do with region, first off. Start there...
Judean, Jewish, Hebrew, etc., all are at their base, the same. Keep claiming Jesus wasn't any of them. Then understand as a gentile of over 2000 years ago, he HAD to be a pagan-a believer in multiple idols or a heretic/atheist. By your book, he was neither. Yet he preached one god, one belief...let's see...that, back then was....jewish, judean, hebrew.... and still is.
 
dear dear uncle, the first five books of the bible are called the Pentatuch.
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Still having trouble with spelling your own religious words. It is spelled, Pentateuch and just like the Torah, it is the first 5 books of the Old Testament.

I know what the talmud is and that it is not restricted to rabbi's. For an unreasonable sum of money I can purchase the full 64 (?) volumes of it. Why did you lie and say that it is a "text book'', signifying that it is just one book when, if you really are a jew, you know it is in volumes.

the talmud is a supplement to the pentatuch....
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The talmud supersedes the Pentateuch/Torah/first 5 books of the Hebrew Bible.

Jews are called 'the chosen people" because when the Holy one chose us, we, in kind accepted Him as our God.....
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Show this, chapter and verse. No where did God make a deal with the jews to be the "chosen ones". He called the Israelites, (again, do not confuse with Israelis), His chosen and no one else. If you are saying that jews are the Israelites, show that connection chapters and verses.


Jews have always debated with God. and He allowed it ,abraham asked..why would you pick me..as did moses...and what of Lot when he bargained with God not to destroy every man in the destruction of sodom and gamorra(sp). he bargained for even if there was one rightious man, and God granted him the win of the debate......
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To question God is not to debate Him; To make a deal with Him, as Lot did, is not to debate Him. No man can win a debate with God. Try it.

Jacob means 'usurper' in hebrew (this was in your old testament) ,hebrew, the universal language that jews speak.......jacobs name was changed to Israel..which means "prince of God", the title that Gods 'chosen people' would bear ever after......
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So, since jews speak Hebrew, you assume that they are "Gods chosen people". By that logic, would I be the emperor of Japan if I spoke Japanese?

So tell me this, if you do not believe there were jews at that time, surely you do believe there were hebrews, for they are all through the bible.......and then of course you know hebrews are jews.......
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Quite the contrary, I know that Hebrews and jews are not the same people. So, I guess you need to educate me: Show where in the Bible anyplace that it says jews are Hebrews. It doesn't. And you will not make any effort to show this, because, regardless how hard you try you will not find any thing in the Biblical Scriptures that says that God turned the Hebrews into jews. Because He didn't.

the first mention of jews,,as i see it here seems to be at the time of the building of the second temple of solomon, although it may be sooner...i dont have my bible handy right now as i am visiting a friend,,but, have no fear:mrgreen: i will find the dreaded 'jew' word for you:2wave:
by the way Queen esther was deffinately a jew and it saydefinitelys so in the bible...also the prophet ezra led a group of 'jews' from babylon to jerusalem..
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I am looking forward to this information. I already know what you intend to post. WARNING - study the original wording of the text you are speaking of and delve deep into who you are calling jews. I already have. Bring the proof of Esther being a jew also.

should i go on with my research,,,or will you conceed....that christ was a jew from abraham to david and had jewish blood running through his kingly veins...
otherwise ,please show proof as i have done,,,
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Insults and assertions are not "proof". If you honestly believe that it is, then you and I have nothing further to say to each other. As for your alledged "research", I wish you would share it with the rest of us, because you have shown none of it.

why would he study torah ,why would he be called rabbi. what are your answers to these indelable questions?
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He studied the religion of the Israelites, the true "Chosen" people of God. This religion was not judaism, as, once again, I say, there were no jews during His time on earth. If you say there were, show it. Rabbis were teachers during Biblical times and not jewish leaders.

there is just to much proof for the argument of jesus jewishness.....
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THIS IS ALL I AM ASKING OF YOU TO PROVE. IF THERE IS SO MUCH PROOF OF IT - SHOW IT. GIVE ME SCRIPTURES, CHAPTERS AND VERSES. You do not have to show me anything else. I will convert to judaism if you can prove Him to be a jew! But, prove it - don't just say it.

ngdawg
Well, since you're basically wrong on every aspect, yea, any learning you've done would surprise me.
Orthodoxy has nothing to do with region, first off. Start there...
Judean, Jewish, Hebrew, etc., all are at their base, the same. Keep claiming Jesus wasn't any of them. Then understand as a gentile of over 2000 years ago, he HAD to be a pagan-a believer in multiple idols or a heretic/atheist. By your book, he was neither. Yet he preached one god, one belief...let's see...that, back then was....jewish, judean, hebrew.... and still is.
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Your logic astounds me. I have repeatedly shown that jews and Judeans are not the same people and some how you come back to claiming that they are. And that is what gets me: You just claim it. You don't bother to show anything to back up your claim. You haven't refuted one thing I have said, (although, I will give you credit for trying - and failing - once). Of course, now we are into calling me a Nazi and a Klansman because you can't debate the topic.

My assertion, once again: Jesus the Christ was not a jew and couldn't have been since there were no jews in His time. Not a hard one to disprove if I am wrong.
 
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All I can say is....If Jeebus wants people like these guys, I'm so happy I'm Pagan.
 
uncle, if you cannot understand the fact that jesus was decendent from david, israelite and jew,,,,,,,then you are the one with the problem.....you have shown no proof of the gibberish you espouse,,,and it seems what you aremost concerned with is spelling
 
tecoyah said:
All I can say is....If Jeebus wants people like these guys, I'm so happy I'm Pagan.
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Ditto.....
 
tecoyah said:
All I can say is....If Jeebus wants people like these guys, I'm so happy I'm Pagan.
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Word.

Jesus is the son of God, and God created man in his own image, everyone agrees on that right?

Since there are many shades of people on this earth, God must not be aryan. As such, the son of God would be a "mixed-blood".
 
We know those who follow the old testament/one god are jews.
Prove your statement: I know that Hebrews and jews are not the same people. So, I guess you need to educate me: Show where in the Bible anyplace that it says jews are Hebrews.
So enlighten us, oh, learned one....what did these Hebrews practice?
 
jennyb said:
uncle, if you cannot understand the fact that jesus was decendent from david, israelite and jew,,,,,,,then you are the one with the problem.....you have shown no proof of the gibberish you espouse,,,and it seems what you aremost concerned with is spelling
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For the last time, there were no jews in the Bible. The great and wondrous Jesus was not a jew because they did not exist. You use the word Israelite as those it is synonymous with jews and yet you show no connection. I have repeatedly requested that you and yours show Biblically the association between jews and Gods true chosen and you have ignored it. This is your last chance with me for you to show it.
 
Well, we could start with this, although I'm sure you'll dismiss it...but I'm not in the mood to scan bible pages right now.
"Judaism and Christianity teach that the story of Abraham is more than the story of one man. Abraham becomes the patriarch of the Jewish nation as he passes 10 severe tests of his belief in God and God’s covenant with him.

Judaism, Christianity and Islam teach that Abraham enters into a covenant with God in which both sides make commitments. Abraham is required to leave his homeland, and to follow the direction into the land that God promised Abraham and his descendents. God promises to bless Abraham and his descendents, and to make of them a great nation. Asking Abraham to leave his father’s house is the first test of the covenant. The most significant demand God makes on Abraham is that he and his descendants totally commit to a belief in one and only one God. This is the foundation of Judaism, Christianity and Islam."
Source: http://homepage.mac.com/jerrypeterson/CHUMSsite/pages/Story Abraham.html
Then, we can move on to a 'dictionary' of terms and names used throughout the bible, both OT and NT:
"ju, joo, ju'-ish, joo'-ish (yehudhi plural yehudhim; Ioudaioi; feminine adjective yehudhith; Ioudaikos): "Jew" denotes originally an inhabitant of Judah (2 Ki 16:6 applies to the two tribes of the Southern Kingdom), but later the meaning was extended to embrace all descendants of Abraham. In the Old Testament the word occurs a few times in the singular. (Est 2:5; 3:4, etc.; Jer 34:9; Zec 8:23); very frequently in the plural in Ezra and Nehemiah, Esther, and in Jeremiah and Daniel. The adjective in the Old Testament applies only to the "Jews' language" or speech (2 Ki 18:26,28 parallel Neh 13:24; Isa 36:11,13). "Jews" (always plural) is the familiar term for Israelites in the Gospels (especially in John), Acts, Epistles, etc. "Jewess" occurs in 1 Ch 4:18; Acts 16:1; 24:24. In Tit 1:14 a warning is given against "Jewish fables" (in Greek the adjective is found also in Gal 2:14). The "Jews' religion" (Ioudaismos) is referred to in Gal 1:13,14"
Source: http://www.bible-history.com/isbe/J/JEW,+JEWESS,+JEWISH/

Now, your question is answered and NOT in my own words, so it's YOUR turn-again, prove that the word 'hebrew' did not mean jewish and admit that, since your Jesus was not one, he was pagan. Because he had to be by your own description.
 
ngdawg said:
Well, we could start with this, although I'm sure you'll dismiss it...but I'm not in the mood to scan bible pages right now.
"Judaism and Christianity teach that the story of Abraham is more than the story of one man. Abraham becomes the patriarch of the Jewish nation as he passes 10 severe tests of his belief in God and God’s covenant with him.

Judaism, Christianity and Islam teach that Abraham enters into a covenant with God in which both sides make commitments. Abraham is required to leave his homeland, and to follow the direction into the land that God promised Abraham and his descendents. God promises to bless Abraham and his descendents, and to make of them a great nation. Asking Abraham to leave his father’s house is the first test of the covenant. The most significant demand God makes on Abraham is that he and his descendants totally commit to a belief in one and only one God. This is the foundation of Judaism, Christianity and Islam."
Source: http://homepage.mac.com/jerrypeterson/CHUMSsite/pages/Story Abraham.html
Then, we can move on to a 'dictionary' of terms and names used throughout the bible, both OT and NT:
"ju, joo, ju'-ish, joo'-ish (yehudhi plural yehudhim; Ioudaioi; feminine adjective yehudhith; Ioudaikos): "Jew" denotes originally an inhabitant of Judah (2 Ki 16:6 applies to the two tribes of the Southern Kingdom), but later the meaning was extended to embrace all descendants of Abraham. In the Old Testament the word occurs a few times in the singular. (Est 2:5; 3:4, etc.; Jer 34:9; Zec 8:23); very frequently in the plural in Ezra and Nehemiah, Esther, and in Jeremiah and Daniel. The adjective in the Old Testament applies only to the "Jews' language" or speech (2 Ki 18:26,28 parallel Neh 13:24; Isa 36:11,13). "Jews" (always plural) is the familiar term for Israelites in the Gospels (especially in John), Acts, Epistles, etc. "Jewess" occurs in 1 Ch 4:18; Acts 16:1; 24:24. In Tit 1:14 a warning is given against "Jewish fables" (in Greek the adjective is found also in Gal 2:14). The "Jews' religion" (Ioudaismos) is referred to in Gal 1:13,14"
Source: http://www.bible-history.com/isbe/J/JEW,+JEWESS,+JEWISH/

Now, your question is answered and NOT in my own words, so it's YOUR turn-again, prove that the word 'hebrew' did not mean jewish and admit that, since your Jesus was not one, he was pagan. Because he had to be by your own description.
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Jammn, you just whipped my arse and I didn't even have to read your entire post. That's right. You won. You used the Holy Scriptures of the DICTIONARY to prove that the Holy Words of the Holy Bible are invalid.

On top of that you used the mighty and all knowing jerrypeterson homepage as a reference. How can I possibly defeat such as jerrypeterson? I give. I concede. Yep. You won. The Holy dictionary and the holy moly jerrypeterson homepage have convinced me that I am stupid and the Bible is a lie. Hence forth I probably should pray to Merriam Webster and good old jerrypeterson and his homepage. But, I will ask them this one or two questions: Why aren't jews mentioned in the Bible? Why, if Jesus were a jew, didn't they exist until the 18th century?

OOPS. Guess I gotta ask them one more question: Why did Jesus practice the laws and teachings of Israel, (the man of God and not the illegal land in Palestine ), if He was a Pagan. Wait....I got an answer coming in from ....from....I thinks it Merriam....or Webster. Might be from the jerrypeterson homepage....Anyway, it's telling me that the Christ wasn't a Pagan because He followed the laws and commandments of His father. Wait....there is more....Yep. Got it. The Christ couldn't have possibly been a jew because there were no jews during His time.

Merriam and Webster ask that I inquire of you to show where the Holy Bible in its original form says that there were anyone called jews? They want to update their pages. jerrypetersons homepage also is inquisitive.
 
Uncle said:
The Christ couldn't have possibly been a jew because there were no jews during His time.

Merriam and Webster ask that I inquire of you to show where the Holy Bible in its original form says that there were anyone called jews? They want to update their pages. jerrypetersons homepage also is inquisitive.
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:rofl. Saying the word wasn't invented yet so it doesn't apply doesn't make it less of a fact that Jesus was from the same religion as today's Jewish people.

You need to prove Jesus was not from Israel and was not from the relgion of the old testament to say Jesus was not what we call today "jewish".
 
Gibberish said:
:rofl. Saying the word wasn't invented yet so it doesn't apply doesn't make it less of a fact that Jesus was from the same religion as today's Jewish people.

You need to prove Jesus was not from Israel and was not from the relgion of the old testament to say Jesus was not what we call today "jewish".
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That'll never happen....he and the OP are using semantics to prove their anti-semitism and doing under the guise of 'christianity'.
If the word 'jewish' wasn't coined until the 18th century (funny how as they go, the years get earlier, so it would seem), what was the Spanish Inquisition doing in 1492?
 
One more thing that shows he was jewish(despite the semantics) and then screw it...
Luke2:21 And at the end of eight days, when he was circumcised , he was called Jesus, the name given by the angel before he was conceived in the womb. Luke2:22 And when the time came for their purification according to the law of Moses, theyb rought him up to Jerusalem to present him to the Lord(as it is written in the law of the Lord, "Every male that opens the womb shall be called holy to the Lord')
From my own bible,'translated from the original tongues being the version set forth in AD1611, revised AD1881-1885.
While these particular passages don't 'use' the word 'Jew', the practices are those of Jewish tradition and faith-collectively now called a 'bris'.
Your argument is that he wasn't jewish. The word 'gentile' IS used in the NT, representing those who were 'godless'. You claim he was a gentile. Ok, you win:mrgreen:
 
anyone who is not bigoted would not refute the idea ,which every person with the least of brains knows....the fact ,that hebrews were ,and are, jews.
the ark of the covenant...one of the ,if not THE, holiest object for israelites, belongs to the jews (israelites).
deborah, the prophetess was a jew
esther the queen, was a jewess. ruth,wife of moab,after he was killed,when she said to ruth,"go and marry again',ruth replied 'you are my mother and where ever you go, i will go, and your one God shall be my God,,one God,(monothiest) her God was YAHWEH,God of the jews.
The kingdom of judah was always ruled by kings of the house of David (jews)..of which jesus was a decendent, and was a jew.
everyone knows it was the jews who were sold into slavery to the egyptians... your little argument based on semantics is actually quite silly,,,,it is rather like the song which states 'you say tomato, and i say
toemahtoe , you say potato, and i say potahtoe..... said differently, but meaning the same..
by saying the jews did not come about until the eighteenth century truely is rediculous..i know that you know this fact, and you are only trying to get a rise, or ruffle some feathers. After all, there were jews in america, who owned slaves the same as other americans..and surely they were not called hebrews, or israelites..they were called jews.
didnt herod say 'who is this 'king of the jews' ?
and the spanish inquisition with the murder of thousands of jews, took place in the 1400's.....so the statement that the word was not made up until the 18th century is a bit rediculous. more than that, it is an entire farce and you know this.
 
Heh...seeing that both have not responded since July24, I'd say they concur that their attempt at bad semantics and story twisting was, indeed, a farce.
Oh well, I'm off to kill some QBeez....been fun!:2wave:
 
jennyb said:
anyone who is not bigoted would not refute the idea ,which every person with the least of brains knows....the fact ,that hebrews were ,and are, jews.
the ark of the covenant...one of the ,if not THE, holiest object for israelites, belongs to the jews (israelites).
deborah, the prophetess was a jew
esther the queen, was a jewess. ruth,wife of moab,after he was killed,when she said to ruth,"go and marry again',ruth replied 'you are my mother and where ever you go, i will go, and your one God shall be my God,,one God,(monothiest) her God was YAHWEH,God of the jews.
The kingdom of judah was always ruled by kings of the house of David (jews)..of which jesus was a decendent, and was a jew.
everyone knows it was the jews who were sold into slavery to the egyptians... your little argument based on semantics is actually quite silly,,,,it is rather like the song which states 'you say tomato, and i say
toemahtoe , you say potato, and i say potahtoe..... said differently, but meaning the same..
by saying the jews did not come about until the eighteenth century truely is rediculous..i know that you know this fact, and you are only trying to get a rise, or ruffle some feathers. After all, there were jews in america, who owned slaves the same as other americans..and surely they were not called hebrews, or israelites..they were called jews.
didnt herod say 'who is this 'king of the jews' ?
and the spanish inquisition with the murder of thousands of jews, took place in the 1400's.....so the statement that the word was not made up until the 18th century is a bit rediculous. more than that, it is an entire farce and you know this.
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Does the Bible mention the talmud? No it does not. Do jews practice the teachings of the talmud and hold it in higher esteem then the Bible? Yes, they do. Did Jesus practice the teachings of the talmud? No, He did not. Did the talmud exist during the time of Jesus? No, it did not. Do the jews discredit every thing except the first five Books of the Bible? Yes, they do.

Again, I ask you to show where in the Bible does it say that God changed the Israelites into jews? It doesn't. He didn't.

Where does the Bible say that circumsion was a jewish law? It doesn't. It wasn't.
 
You say you want debate Uncle, but you refuse to accept defeat even after several people put you in your place. Simply put, you don't know how to debate! SO, remember that time you said you wanted real debate? THEN ****ING DO IT!!!!!
 
uncle, the removel of the foreskin is a part of the covenant between God and his people..it is also a part of the cleanliness laws, since dirt and bacteria gets caught under it.
it doesnt matter to jews what came before or after jesus, since jews do not believe that time started over after he was dead,,,,if you notice the hebrew (jewish) calender did not stop at his death,but carried on..it is now a few hundred years past the year 4,000.
so it is neither here nor there what happened with any part of jesus life,,,all we know is that a great many people have been murdered because of him, or in his name much blood has been shed......do you think this is what he would have wanted??i dont, i think if he were to see the destruction brought about for his name sake, he would be sadly disappointed.
 
Just show this: Where does the Bible - Old or New Testament - say that God changed the Israelites into jews?
 
Uncle said:
Just show this: Where does the Bible - Old or New Testament - say that God changed the Israelites into jews?
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God didn’t' change the title. Society did. Where in the Old or New Testament does it say Christ's new religion should be called Christianity and it should be run by the Catholic Church? It doesn't society made this decision.

Just because God didn't declare it doesn't mean it is not true. Since God didn't declare the religion to be called Catholic or Christianity does that mean that Christianity is not the religion of God?
 
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