So the answer is that you really haven't a clue what it's about. I'll help you out.
Yes, we do have discrimination laws on our books. However, the law is not much use if the statute of limintations runs out before you even discover that you have a claim. The pay discrimination statute has always had a relatively short statute of limitations, but for many years the courts reasonably held that the time period to bring a claim began anew with each disciminatory practice, i.e. every time someone received less pay for discriminatory reasons. Then the Supreme Court issued a decision which established that the time period would begin to run on the date of the FIRST discriminatory act, i.e., the first time someone received less pay for discriminatory reasons.
That leads to absurd and clearly unjust results. For example, let's say that two women work at Acme Tire Co. One has been employed there six years and the other has been employed there for six months. One day the women happen upon payroll records that someone has mistakenly left in open view. They discover that they are being paid substantially less than men who are doing the exact same jobs, even though they are equally qualified. It appears that one women has been substantially underpaid for six years, while the other has been underpaid for six months. The woman who has been discriminated against for six months can bring a lawsuit to recover the difference in wages over the last six months, but the woman who has been underpaid for six years has no claim because her cause of action expired over five years ago.
So explain to me how it is in any way fair or rational to the women who has been injured for a relatively short period of time, but no redress to the woman who has been injured over a period 12 times as long?
