Glen Contrarian
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Of course they were ruled from France and England, I never said they were not.
However, it was the very intent of the Mandate that this only happen until they were ready for independence. And there are other major differences as well.
In a Mandate like this, Local Law applied. The only reason for the oversight is to allow the new nation to set up a functioning government and get on it's feet.
In a Colony, it is permanent. The laws of the parent country is all that matters, other then what they choose to give them. Local governments are only for local purposes.
In a Mandate, the land and it's resources belong to the people. If a French company exploits the resources, they have to pay the local government.
In a Colony, all resources belong to the home country. Companies pay the home country for resource rights, and do whatever they like, wealth returning to the home country.
Now there are a great many differences between the two, but those are the biggest ones.
Now did French companies get preferences and good deals in setting up in the French Mandate? Of course they did, I am not stupid. But the fact is the moneys were paid to the Local Government, not to France. Compare say the situation in the French Mandate with that in French Indochina, and it should be obvious what I am talking about.
So it is much-much more then semantics. Yes, the French "ruled", which is a far-far cry from the French "owned". And if people can not understand the differences and want to use it to beat up on the French or others, then to hell with them for the most part.
The United States "ruled" Cuba and the Philippines as well, but you do not hear them bitching about it decades later (well, Cuba does but then again they bitch about almost everything).
There you go again, bitch-slapping me with facts and documented history! :doh Y'know, you'd think by now I woulda gotten a clue to not argue with you using stuff that I really think I know since you have developed a habit of re-edjimicating me....