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Very true. But we know what language Jesus spoke and we know what language the NT was written in. We know how to translate those languages into English. So take these English words from Jesus when he speaks about a romantic relationship between man and woman and tell us how it should be translated:
Mark 10:5-9
5“It was because your hearts were hard that Moses wrote you this law,” Jesus replied. 6“But at the beginning of creation God ‘made them male and female.’a 7‘For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife,b 8and the two will become one flesh.’c So they are no longer two, but one flesh. 9Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.”
Is your argument that Jesus didn't speak or write English so anything in the Bible is up for a completely different interpretation than what has been translated for us?
Well, right there, that makes things an issue. The first big issue is that Jesus spoke Aramaic and the Gospels were written in Greek. That means, right off the bat, there is interpretation, even if the words that were attributed to Jesus were actually spoken by him. Translation is interpretation. Already, you have an interpretation going on, from the very first writings to the words that it is claimed that Jesus spoke.