Ben K.
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That doesn't seem very reasonable.
What doesn't seem reasonable exactly?
That doesn't seem very reasonable.
A Harvard historian has identified a faded, fourth-century scrap of papyrus she calls "The Gospel of Jesus's Wife." One line of the torn fragment of text purportedly reads: "Jesus said to them, 'My wife …"
September 18 2012
http://www.nytimes.com/2012/09/19/us/historian-says-piece-of-papyrus-refers-to-jesus-wife.html?_r=0
What doesn't seem reasonable exactly?
The idea that "My wife... " could be the beginning of a parable.
Who said it was? Or that it wasn't? Or he was too busy talking about assaulting people with planks to the eye for being hypocrites to be careful of what he was saying?
You said it could mean anything because Jesus was not a literal speaker. He wasn't, but it is not reasonable to think that a reference to one's own wife can be meant other than literally.
Hence the plank and the eye reference. Take a few words out of context and the statement loses all meaning.
Regardless, focusing on these quotes specifically, he uses the future tense referring to "her" in the following fragment. It seems likely he was talking of a prediction of being married or a hypothetical marriage in pursuit of a metaphor. Since we're dealing with media translations from coptic, I´ll await the expert opinion and cast my doubt on how useful it is to draw conclusions from with the information we have.
It just does not make sense as a metaphor, or anything but a literal wife. It also jibes with the widely known fact that Jesus was married to Mary Magdelene and she was revered by a sect of Christians who were later suppressed by the Church.
It's a "fact" that Jesus was married to Mary Magdalene?
Okay, you can carry on without me.
Oh, have I inadvertently tread on religious prejudices?
As a piece of friendly advice, let me advise you to leave your religious baggage at the door when you discuss history, otherwise it becomes impossible to have any serious disussion of history at all.
It just does not make sense as a metaphor, or anything but a literal wife. It also jibes with the widely known fact that Jesus was married to Mary Magdelene and she was revered by a sect of Christians who were later suppressed by the Church.
Oh, have I inadvertently tread on religious prejudices?
As a piece of friendly advice, let me advise you to leave your religious baggage at the door when you discuss history, otherwise it becomes impossible to have any serious disussion of history at all.
I'm an atheist.
Professor Pagels has stated, in her sublimely conservative manner, "it is hard to evaluate something so fragmentary at this point."
Harvard Professor Finds 'New Gospel' | News | The Harvard Crimson
I think there are a few people, who shall remain nameless, who could stand to emulate Pagels in her characteristically modest claims. So many people take a somewhat minor thing like this and make way too much out of it.
In the first person? I am confident you will quickly provide a citation to this extraordinary claim.Right. Because "bride" is never used as a metaphor for the church. Ever. Just until now. I just made it up.
Then why on earth would you get all huffy at the assertion that Jesus was married?
In Coptic? I am confident you will quickly provide a citation to this extraordinary claim.
I just don't buy it.
Then why on earth would you get all huffy at the assertion that Jesus was married?
It just does not make sense as a metaphor, or anything but a literal wife. It also jibes with the widely known fact that Jesus was married to Mary Magdelene and she was revered by a sect of Christians who were later suppressed by the Church.
I agree except for the "legend " phase. This is all by "word of mouth", hearsay and popular opinion this does not make for a verifiable biography.
You're going to have to cite this claim. I've heard of it, but as for it being fact, I have yet to see any convincing evidence on it.
"The fragment’s 33 words, scattered across 14 incomplete lines, leave a good deal to interpretation. But in King’s analysis, and as she argues in a forthcoming article in the Harvard Theological Review, the “wife” Jesus refers to is probably Mary Magdalene, and Jesus appears to be defending her against someone, perhaps one of the male disciples. “She will be able to be my disciple,” Jesus replies. Then, two lines later, he says: “I dwell with her.”
Something else to keep in mind, though, is that he said similar things about several people, using it in a metaphorical sense- in the sense that spirits dwell with one another.
I'm not saying this is a more accurate interpretation, but that it is definitely a possibility. Much of what he is credited with writing was symbolic and full of metaphor.
A question to those of us here who are Christian: if Jesus had a wife, does it change anything in your mind, regarding your belief system? That is not meant as any sort of challenge, just out of curiosity.
There are four canonical texts, none of which is in total agreement with any of the others. There are passages in each that may be found in one or two of the others and there are passages that are found in only one of the texts.
Your definition of "pretty quickly" must include a period from 35-40 years to more than 100 years after the supposed time of the crucifixion, not what I would call pretty quickly.
The vast majority of the early xians were illiterate and most of the early teaching had to be oral in nature.
None of the books found in the New Testament were written by eyewitnesses to the ministry of a man named Jesus - IF any such person ever existed.