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Will God Bless the Military Beacuse of New Policy?

Will God Bless the Military Because of New Policy?

  • God will Continue to bless our Country but not our Military

    Votes: 1 2.7%

  • God will continue to bless BOTH country and military

    Votes: 3 8.1%

  • God blesses individuals NOT groups

    Votes: 7 18.9%

  • God blesses individuals AND groups seperatly

    Votes: 1 2.7%

  • God doesnt work like this at all!

    Votes: 10 27.0%

  • I dont believe in God of the Chirstian Bible

    Votes: 9 24.3%

  • Im an Athiest

    Votes: 13 35.1%

  • Other / I dont know

    Votes: 6 16.2%

  • The person that said this to you Noodle is a idiot

    Votes: 12 32.4%

  • The person that said this to you Noodle is a wise person

    Votes: 2 5.4%
  • Total voters
    37
I believe such people should keep that notion to themselves.
 
Hatuey said:
It's impossible to read the Bible and not see that the Christian God is not decisively anti-homosexual. However it's also impossible to believe in a creator of everything which is living and then exclude homosexuals, their sexuality and behavior.
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You are wrong. It is not impossible.
 
Hatuey said:
It's impossible to read the Bible and not see that the Christian God is not decisively anti-homosexual. However it's also impossible to believe in a creator of everything which is living and then exclude homosexuals, their sexuality and behavior.
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It's also impossible to read the bible and find any shred of evidence that God supports the US in any way, shape or form.
 
Your Star said:
You are wrong. It is not impossible.
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Really? Unless we're talking about a different 'God' than the one talked about in the Bible, it really is impossible. If you want to talk about your idea of God? Sure. It's probably possible. However, the God from the Bible is A) anti-homosexual and B) the creator of homosexuality.
 
spud_meister said:
It's also impossible to read the bible and find any shred of evidence that God supports the US in any way, shape or form.
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It makes Americans feel good when we tell ourselves that the same guy who created planets is concerned with the supremacy of our nationality over others.
 
Hatuey said:
Really? Unless we're talking about a different 'God' than the one talked about in the Bible, it really is impossible. If you want to talk about your idea of God? Sure. It's probably possible. However, the God from the Bible is A) anti-homosexual and B) the creator of homosexuality.
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Jesus never said anything about homosexuals, and the homosexual acts condemned in the Bible are related to temple prostitution, and idolatry.
 
Your Star said:
Jesus never said anything about homosexuals, and the homosexual acts condemned in the Bible are related to temple prostitution, and idolatry.
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The fact that Jesus stated that he and God were one and God clearly warned against sodomy and homosexuality makes any talk about what Jesus and "God" did on separate occasions pretty ridiculous. If you believe that Jesus is God, you have to believe he is the same God who clearly opposed homosexuality in the old testament.
 
Hatuey said:
The fact that Jesus stated that he and God were one and God clearly warned against sodomy and homosexuality makes any talk about what Jesus and "God" did on separate occasions pretty ridiculous. If you believe that Jesus is God, you have to believe he is the same God who clearly opposed homosexuality in the old testament.
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The old testament doesn't apply to Christians, that was the old covenant with God. With Christ we have a new covenant, and the most important verse in the Bible is John 3:16
 
Your Star said:
The old testament doesn't apply to Christians, that was the old covenant with God. With Christ we have a new covenant, and the most important verse in the Bible is John 3:16
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Not only are you wrong but what does that have to do with what I said? Jesus is not saying he is a new god. He is stating he is the "God" from the Tanach/Torah, prophecies etc. The God from the Tanach/Torah, prophecies etc is decisively anti-homosexual. It's a very simple concept.
 
mac said:
Most do and pay a far higher price for it than you could ever bear.
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I may not be able to bear killing others in war, though I pray I'll never have to find out, nor have to kill in self defense.

I'm positive that the price is very high. I have many friends that are vets of the Vietnam war. I pray for them. They need and can't get restful sleep. It's not their faults. They were mere instruments of our leaders decisions.

If killing, maiming, and disemboweling are the righteous acts, why do these men not sleep? The images in their minds are evil, no matter whether they were killing, murdering, or just following orders.

I'm Pennsylvania Dutch. The Quaker quip was interesting. The Amish live there too, in the Appalachian turkey trails of Belfont. They do not wear mustaches with their beards. They were persecuted in history by military men with mustaches.
 
Goshin said:
Oh, man. Where do I begin?

The fundamental principle of hermaneutics (interpretation of scripture) is to interpret scripture with more scripture... particularly in immediate context, and scripture relating to similar subjects.

"Thou shalt not kill" needs context... not kill what? People? Sheep? Bugs? Microbes?

King David, in his early years at least, was "a man after God's own heart" who was a great warrior and war-leader, whose war-band killed tens of thousands of the enemy.

"If a thief be found breaking up, and smitten so that he die, no blood shall be shed for him." Killing a thief in the act of breaking and entering is not against OT Law.

Ask a Jew about the original Hebrew of the Big 10... they'll tell you "Thou shalt not kill" refers to unjustified or unlawful killing, not killing in war or in self-defense.

In the New Testament, when soldiers who had converted to Christianity came to Jesus and asked him what they should do, he said "do not terrorize the people, and be content with your pay" (ie don't harm innocent civilians or extort them). He didn't tell them to quit being soldiers.

Almost all Christian denominations recognize that there are many biblical exemptions to "thou shalt not kill", such as war and self-defense.

Very few denominations other than Quakers hold to a total non-violence philosophy.
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This is the response that I've received before, except that no one before tried to change 'kill' to 'murder'. Maybe there was a mistranslation in 'lie with' a man. I think it is really 'play cards' with a man as he would with a woman.

EDIT: Oops, that was someone else that mentioned the mistranslation.
Sorry.
 
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Your Star said:
The old testament doesn't apply to Christians, that was the old covenant with God. With Christ we have a new covenant, and the most important verse in the Bible is John 3:16
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The Old Testament is the Law and the Prophets. The Old Law doesn't apply to Christians, but you don't disregard the entire work.
 
Mickey Shane said:
This is the response that I've received before, except that no one before tried to change 'kill' to 'murder'. Maybe there was a mistranslation in 'lie with' a man. I think it is really 'play cards' with a man as he would with a woman.

EDIT: Oops, that was someone else that mentioned the mistranslation.
Sorry.
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"Kill" in English is an all-encompassing verb that covers the taking of life in all forms. That kind of generalization is expressed in Hebrew through the verb "harag." However, the verb that appears in the Torah's prohibition is a completely different one, "ratsah" which, properly rendered is "murder." This refers only to criminal acts of killing in the root of the word.

The sixth of the ten commandments reads, “Thou shall not kill.” The New International Version translates it, "Thou shall not murder.” This is more accurate because the Hebrew word so translated does not refer to killing in general but to malicious and unlawful killing. - http://www.christianhomesite.com/cherryvale/text/10command6.html

This is a a good article with excellent detail: "Thou Shalt Not Kill" -- What Does It Mean?
 
Blackdog said:
"Kill" in English is an all-encompassing verb that covers the taking of life in all forms. That kind of generalization is expressed in Hebrew through the verb "harag." However, the verb that appears in the Torah's prohibition is a completely different one, "ratsah" which, properly rendered is "murder." This refers only to criminal acts of killing in the root of the word.

The sixth of the ten commandments reads, “Thou shall not kill.” The New International Version translates it, "Thou shall not murder.” This is more accurate because the Hebrew word so translated does not refer to killing in general but to malicious and unlawful killing. - http://www.christianhomesite.com/cherryvale/text/10command6.html

This is a a good article with excellent detail: "Thou Shalt Not Kill" -- What Does It Mean?
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We are indeed lucky that someone discovered an out for our killing!
 
Catawba said:
We are indeed lucky that someone discovered an out for our killing!
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Murder is always killing. Killing is not always murder.

At this point you have no argument so no point in continuing.

Have a good one.
 
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Blackdog said:
Murder is always killing. Killing is not always murder.

At this point you have no argument so no point in continuing.

Have a good one.
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Excuse me, I had forgotten that you were arbitrator for God and determine what she considers killing and what she considers murder. You can provide some ID of course, right? Or are we just supposded to have faith that you are the one?
 
Catawba said:
Excuse me, I had forgotten that you were arbitrator for God and determine what she considers killing and what she considers murder. You can provide some ID of course, right? Or are we just supposded to have faith that you are the one?
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Excuse me? The debate was about what the Bible says and the judeo-Christian God, not some arbitrary entity you just made up.

Here is the original post I responded to...

http://www.debatepolitics.com/polls...tary-beacuse-new-policy-5.html#post1059198299

Now if you want to respond to what we were actually talking about with some proof, we can continue. Otherwise as I said, not much point in going on as I have shown ample evidence to back my claim while you have shown opinion based on nothing.
 
Blackdog said:
Excuse me? The debate was about what the Bible says and the judeo-Christian God, not some arbitrary entity you just made up.
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That is who I was speaking about.

Here is the original post I responded to...

http://www.debatepolitics.com/polls...tary-beacuse-new-policy-5.html#post1059198299
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I know which post you were responding too, I read it before responding to you.

Now if you want to respond to what we were actually talking about with some proof, we can continue. Otherwise as I said, not much point in going on as I have shown ample evidence to back my claim while you have shown opinion based on nothing.
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That is exactly what I based my comment on. I just don't happen to accept your premise that God determines what's murder and what is self-defense killing based on US law. Where is your evidence of that?
 
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Moderator's Warning:
Catawba, you are thread-banned. No further posts in this thread by you are permitted. Violations will be 5 point infractions.
 
That kind of talk, to me, sounds like something that guy in Arkansas would say, you know the Westrbo Baptists Church preacher.
 
I find it just a little interesting that the commandment of "Thou shalt not kill." requires context and is somehow mistranslated, yet to many there is only ONE clear cut interpretation of the Bible regarding homosexuals. :lol:
 
Dr_Patrick said:
I find it just a little interesting that the commandment of "Thou shalt not kill." requires context and is somehow mistranslated, yet to many there is only ONE clear cut interpretation of the Bible regarding homosexuals. :lol:
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:prof Because it is pretty clear when in the OT it says "a man shall not lie with a man" etc.

There is not a single Greek word or phrase in the entire New Testament that could be translated into English as “homosexual” or “homosexuality.” In fact “homosexuality” like that of “heterosexuality,” “bisexuality,” and even “sexual orientation” is a modern concept that would not have been intelligible to New Testament writers. It is however mentioned 3 times in Romans 1:26–27, 1 Corinthians 6:9–10, and 1 Timothy 1:8–11 that are references to homosexuality and sexual immorality in general.

I will use Romans as an example...

Romans 1:26-27: "For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet."

No use of the word or an equivalent word for homosexual. It is direct (just like the OT) with no misunderstanding "And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another."

No mistaking what was said or it's meaning in context. So you have the NT offering references to a law in the OT. This is pretty good evidence.

As a side note it may also be in reference to pagan rituals, or what was happening during those rituals. Either way, no mistaking the intent.

So the "lol" is on your statement. :2razz:
 
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Blackdog said:
:prof Because it is pretty clear when in the OT it says "a man shall not lie with a man" etc.

There is not a single Greek word or phrase in the entire New Testament that could be translated into English as “homosexual” or “homosexuality.” In fact “homosexuality” like that of “heterosexuality,” “bisexuality,” and even “sexual orientation” is a modern concept that would not have been intelligible to New Testament writers. It is however mentioned 3 times in Romans 1:26–27, 1 Corinthians 6:9–10, and 1 Timothy 1:8–11 that are references to homosexuality and sexual immorality in general.

I will use Romans as an example...

Romans 1:26-27: "For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet."

No use of the word or an equivalent word for homosexual. It is direct (just like the OT) with no misunderstanding "And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another."

No mistaking what was said or it's meaning in context. So you have the NT offering references to a law in the OT. This is pretty good evidence.

As a side note it may also be in reference to pagan rituals, or what was happening during those rituals. Either way, no mistaking the intent.

So the "lol" is on your statement. :2razz:
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You can throw as many bible verses as you want to try to justify it, but my statement still stands. People tend to cherry pick issues that they care about and try to justify them, and then throw the others by the wayside and believe them without the same kind of scrutiny.
 
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