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I wouldn't. Jews in Europe did not lead a continual cycle of repression. European attitudes of Jews from the 19th to the 20th century were dependent on the state of the economy. Before that they had been dependent on the latest plague or hard times of Christians. Jews in Europe were likely to prosper economically and socially as long as nothing went really wrong. In America discrimination of blacks was simply a way of life. Originally there were no real racist beliefs behind white supremacy in America. How could slaves be blamed for the hard lives of white Americans if they possessed no political capital whatsoever? As blacks were granted citizenship they could now be blamed for bad crops, social problems, economic hard times etc.
But the 15th, 16th, 17th, 18th Centuries?