View Poll Results: Is Oklahoma Sharia Ban Constitutional?

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  • Yes

    17 51.52%
  • No, It's against the First Amendment of our Constitution

    9 27.27%
  • Other

    7 21.21%
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Thread: Is Oklahoma Sharia Ban Constitutional?

  1. #91
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    Re: Is Oklahoma Sharia Ban Constitutional?

    No judge is trying to implement sharia law in Oklahoma.

    No judge is trying to use sharia law as a binding precedent in Oklahoma.

    The use of sharia law would, at most be limited to instances where it would provide some clarification to someone's wishes.

    This is fear-mongering preying upon the people through mis-information.

    There is no chance of sharia law being implemented in the US. There is no judge who could make a ruling based on sharia law that was in any way in contradiction with existing US laws.
    The fear of the stealth implementation of sharia law is ridiculous and absurd.

    Shame on the people who promote this very, very silly idea as a real thing.

    Every time I have looked into these allegations, they have been baseless and exaggerated.
    The fnords are getting to people.
    I may be wrong.

  2. #92
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    Omfg! Omfg! Omfg!

    Quote Originally Posted by Gardener View Post
    Equal protection under the law.

    Are you really unaware that women's testimony is not worth that of a man under sharia?
    Oh yeah, that's a real threat.
    If Oklahoma hadn't passed this ban, this totally would be the case in Oklahoma. I know cause I read it on the intrawebz.
    OMFG! OMFG! OMFG!

    Also, I heard that in OK they're erecting a Mohammedan statue depicting the slaughter of unbelievers. Also they were going to pass a law requiring Sunday schools and VBSs to teach Islam.
    And, what's more the Mohamedans are kidnapping our women for their harims.
    OMFG! OMFG! OMFG!
    I may be wrong.

  3. #93
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    Re: Is Oklahoma Sharia Ban Constitutional?

    Quote Originally Posted by Harshaw View Post
    Sure. There was a case in NJ where a judge dismissed a rape charge against a man because Sharia law requires a wife always to submit to her husband. Therefore, the court said, the man had no criminal intent, even though she refused him. Never mind that actual NJ law says otherwise.

    Look, all you had to do was read up on this OK law and how it got introduced, because it's all right there. A little due diligence isn't too much to ask.
    This is not true. The judge based his decision on a flawed interpretation of the 1st amendment of the US Constitution and a misunderstanding of how mens rea works. Sharia law was not cited a some sort of a binding precedent. It was only cited by the judge as evidence of the man's mental state in re mens rea.

    Fear mongers made the case out to be something that it is not.
    I may be wrong.

  4. #94
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    Re: Is Oklahoma Sharia Ban Constitutional?

    Quote Originally Posted by Orion View Post
    Link?



    I am just asking you for information, no need to get defensive.
    The actual document is hard to find. the court that over turned the appeal said that:
    "In this action pursuant to the Prevention of Domestic Violence Act (PDVA), we held that the Free Exercise Clause of the First Amendment does not require a Family Part judge to exempt defendant, a practicing Muslim, from a finding that he committed the predicate acts of sexual assault and criminal sexual contact and thus violated the PDVA.
    We also found that the judge was mistaken in failing to enter a final restraining order in the matter."
    From this it seems that, in this case the issue was a poor interpretation of the 1st amendment rather than use of Sharia law as precedent.



    I think that the idea that is being railed against here is abhorrent. However, I do not think that the idea that we oppose is the same thing as what is actual in existence.

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    I may be wrong.

  5. #95
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    Re: Is Oklahoma Sharia Ban Constitutional?

    Quote Originally Posted by PeteEU View Post
    And you dont understand the idea of "principle". By banning "international law" without describing what it is in very large detail, the idiots have banned any law made outside the borders of the US. This could easily include the US constitution, since it was not made inside the borders of the US, but that of the British colonies. It also could easily include any law that had inspiration in the Bible... you know murder laws and those ...

    If anything you are the one living in a repressed backwater that singles out minorities out of ignorance and stupidity... that is a clear sign of repression and being in a backwater..
    Depending on how precisely you mark it, the revolution started either in 1775 or 1776. It ended in 1783 with the Treaty of Paris.

    The discussions about revising the Articles of Confederation which ultimately led us to the debates which resulted in our Constitution didn't start until 1786.

    The Constitution was drafted, debated, and ratified on American soil.

    Also, Article VI of the Constitution pretty clearly denies Oklahoma the authority to ban "international law," much less the Constitution itself.
    I'm already gearing up for Finger Vote 2014.

    Just for reference, means my post was a giant steaming pile of sarcasm.

  6. #96
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    Re: Is Oklahoma Sharia Ban Constitutional?

    Quote Originally Posted by Simon W. Moon View Post
    This is not true. The judge based his decision on a flawed interpretation of the 1st amendment of the US Constitution and a misunderstanding of how mens rea works. Sharia law was not cited a some sort of a binding precedent. It was only cited by the judge as evidence of the man's mental state in re mens rea.

    Fear mongers made the case out to be something that it is not.
    I described what he ruled accurately.
    “Offing those rich pigs with their own forks and knives, and then eating a meal in the same room, far out! The Weathermen dig Charles Manson.”-- Bernadine Dohrn

  7. #97
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    Re: Is Oklahoma Sharia Ban Constitutional?

    Quote Originally Posted by Harshaw View Post
    I described what he ruled accurately.
    If what you say is true, it's worth noting that the appeals court that overturned it failed to note what you noted. Instead, the appeals court said something quite otherwise. As I noted, the appeals court cited a faulty interpretation of the free exercise clause of the 1st amendment. That court failed to describe the situation in terms that as are consistent with your description.
    "In this action pursuant to the Prevention of Domestic Violence Act (PDVA), we held that the Free Exercise Clause of the First Amendment does not require a Family Part judge to exempt defendant, a practicing Muslim, from a finding that he committed the predicate acts of sexual assault and criminal sexual contact and thus violated the PDVA."

    What basis is there for accepting your description instead of the appeals court description?
    I may be wrong.

  8. #98
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    Re: Is Oklahoma Sharia Ban Constitutional?

    Quote Originally Posted by CriticalThought View Post
    Honestly, the right wing southerners has been reduced to voting on nationalist policies on impulse. In Oklahoma, if you put up a vote forbidding the practice of Islam, it would pass. Any rights that aren't white, Christian, or domestic are pretty much up for vote at this point.
    That didn't take long.
    Quote Originally Posted by Top Cat View Post
    At least Bill saved his transgressions for grown women. Not suggesting what he did was OK. But he didn't chase 14 year olds.

  9. #99
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    Re: Is Oklahoma Sharia Ban Constitutional?

    Quote Originally Posted by Simon W. Moon View Post
    If what you say is true, it's worth noting that the appeals court that overturned it failed to note what you noted. Instead, the appeals court said something quite otherwise. As I noted, the appeals court cited a faulty interpretation of the free exercise clause of the 1st amendment. That court failed to describe the situation in terms that as are consistent with your description.
    "In this action pursuant to the Prevention of Domestic Violence Act (PDVA), we held that the Free Exercise Clause of the First Amendment does not require a Family Part judge to exempt defendant, a practicing Muslim, from a finding that he committed the predicate acts of sexual assault and criminal sexual contact and thus violated the PDVA."


    What basis is there for accepting your description instead of the appeals court description?

    Look at what I said he ruled:

    Therefore, the court said, the man had no criminal intent, even though she refused him.
    “Offing those rich pigs with their own forks and knives, and then eating a meal in the same room, far out! The Weathermen dig Charles Manson.”-- Bernadine Dohrn

  10. #100
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    Re: Is Oklahoma Sharia Ban Constitutional?

    Quote Originally Posted by Simon W. Moon View Post
    No judge is trying to implement sharia law in Oklahoma.

    No judge is trying to use sharia law as a binding precedent in Oklahoma.
    No one claimed there was.
    “Offing those rich pigs with their own forks and knives, and then eating a meal in the same room, far out! The Weathermen dig Charles Manson.”-- Bernadine Dohrn

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