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Does the term redneck refer to a culture or race?

What does redneck refer to


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It's a culture thing. Rednecks tend to do things white and black people laugh at.

"Laughing at" is hardly the extent of it....most elitist lefty bigots I encounter aren't satisfied without tossing in terms like "racists" during their guffaws.
 
its obviously a race, rednecks are genetically inferior to normal people :mrgreen:
 
"Laughing at" is hardly the extent of it....most elitist lefty bigots I encounter aren't satisfied without tossing in terms like "racists" during their guffaws.

Who's fault is it that white rednecks were proud of lynching people until a few decades ago? The "stereotype" of the dumb white racist southerner is not based on fairy tales. It's based on the reality that was the American South until a few Congressional acts ago. Now tell us about how the North had racism too.
 
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With that said, what's good for the goose is good for the gander.
If it's all fine and dandy to make remarks about some white people, it should be the same for all people of any color.

Anti-nonwhite racism is usually an expression of supremacist dominance. Anti-white racism is the reaction to that. Equating them by appeal to intuitive notions of "fairness," but African-Americans who dislike whites (with Anglo-Saxon Protestant whites being the central category), aren't acting out of their desire to reinstitute disenfranchisement of those people; they're responding to their own disenfranchisement, or at least what they believe to be their own disenfranchisement. It's still wrong to generalize, but it's not born of the same instincts.
 
Anti-nonwhite racism is usually an expression of supremacist dominance. Anti-white racism is the reaction to that. Equating them by appeal to intuitive notions of "fairness," but African-Americans who dislike whites (with Anglo-Saxon Protestant whites being the central category), aren't acting out of their desire to reinstitute disenfranchisement of those people; they're responding to their own disenfranchisement, or at least what they believe to be their own disenfranchisement. It's still wrong to generalize, but it's not born of the same instincts.

Whatever the motivation, its still ignorant, wrong headed, and flat out stupid.
 
Who's fault is it that white rednecks were proud of lynching people until a few decades ago? The "stereotype" of the dumb white racist southerner is not based on fairy tales. It's based on the reality that was the American South until a few Congressional acts ago. Now tell us about how the North had racism too.

All of which happened in the latest about 40-50 years ago, which most of us present were either infants or did not exist.
Sure go ahead and justify the continuation of bigotry because some people were mean to others, some time way back when.
 
Anti-nonwhite racism is usually an expression of supremacist dominance. Anti-white racism is the reaction to that. Equating them by appeal to intuitive notions of "fairness," but African-Americans who dislike whites (with Anglo-Saxon Protestant whites being the central category), aren't acting out of their desire to reinstitute disenfranchisement of those people; they're responding to their own disenfranchisement, or at least what they believe to be their own disenfranchisement. It's still wrong to generalize, but it's not born of the same instincts.

It's meant to insult based on historical prejudice, most used by pretentious elitists.
 
Who's fault is it that white rednecks were proud of lynching people until a few decades ago? The "stereotype" of the dumb white racist southerner is not based on fairy tales. It's based on the reality that was the American South until a few Congressional acts ago. Now tell us about how the North had racism too.

Lynchings happened in every state, so it just wasn't the south. The only difference is that the south must pay for trying to leave the Union, while ignoring the slave owning and racist past of the non-southern states. For example, all of the southern states had integration done in the 50's, while the rest of the country, including New England, didn't have integration until the 70's.
 
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Lynchings happened in every state, so it just wasn't the south. The only difference is that the south must pay for trying to leave the Union, while ignoring the slave owning and racist past of the non-southern states. For example, all of the southern states had integration done in the 50's, while the rest of the country, including New England, didn't have integration until the 70's.

False, the laws may have been on the books, but that doesn't mean they were enforced.
 
False, the laws may have been on the books, but that doesn't mean they were enforced.

It is true and the historical documentation backs up my statement. Saying that it's false and proving it are two different things. I'll give you an excellent example, in the 1950's Little Rock school district was forcibly integrated with the use of federal troops. Contrast that with the forced integration of Boston school district and the associated rioting that took place in the 1970's.
 
It is true and the historical documentation backs up my statement. Saying that it's false and proving it are two different things. I'll give you an excellent example, in the 1950's Little Rock school district was forcibly integrated with the use of federal troops. Contrast that with the forced integration of Boston school district and the associated rioting that took place in the 1970's.

Forget about the laws, how about the social practices.
No no though, let's ignore the truth. :notlook:

"Although never officially legislated, between 1918 and the 1950s a number of private universities and medical schools introduced numerus clausus policies limiting admissions of students based on their religion or race to certain percentages within the college population. One of the groups affected by these policies was Jewish applicants whose admission to some New England and New York City area liberal arts universities fell significantly between the late 1910s and the mid-1930s[3]. For instance, the admission to Harvard University during that period fell from 27.6% to 17.1% and in Columbia University from 32.7% to 14.6%. Corresponding quotas were introduced in the medical and dental schools resulting during the 1930s in the decline of Jewish students: e.g. in Cornell University School of Medicine from 40% in 1918-22 to 3.57% in 1940-41, in Boston University Medical School from 48.4% in 1929-30 to 12.5% in 1934-35. During this period, a notable exception among U. S. medical schools was the medical school of Middlesex University, which had no quotas and many Jewish faculty members and students; school officials believed that antisemitism played a role in the school's failure to secure AMA accreditation.[4]"

"In addition to Jewish applicants, Catholics, African-Americans, Eastern/Southern Europeans, and women were also targeted by admission restrictions. African-Americans, in some instances, were outright excluded (numerus null) from admission e.g., at Columbia University. The most common method, employed by 90% of American universities and colleges at the time to identify the "desirable" (native-born, white, Protestant) applicants were the application form questions about their religious preference, race, and nationality."

Numerus clausus - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
 
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It is true and the historical documentation backs up my statement. Saying that it's false and proving it are two different things. I'll give you an excellent example, in the 1950's Little Rock school district was forcibly integrated with the use of federal troops. Contrast that with the forced integration of Boston school district and the associated rioting that took place in the 1970's.

I'm not disputing the race riots in the north. But to say that all schools in the south were integrated in the 50's is ignorant.
 
I'm not disputing the race riots in the north. But to say that all schools in the south were integrated in the 50's is ignorant.

Prove me wrong with documented facts. I'm waiting for you to give us actual documented proof and not empty rhetoric.
 
Prove me wrong with documented facts. I'm waiting for you to give us actual documented proof and not empty rhetoric.

Are you talking about public schools or colleges? The Universtity of Missisippi was not integrated until 1962 (the famous James Merdith situation). The University of South Carolina in 1963 (the first integrated college in that state). If you are talking about public schools, not all southern public schools were integrated by 1960, though some were. Swann v. Charlotte-Mecklenburg Board of Education in 1971 started to change that across the country by enacting a policy of busing.

integration: 1954 to 1963 — FactMonster.com
 
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Are you talking about public schools or colleges? The Universtity of Missisippi was not integrated until 1962 (the famous James Merdith situation). The University of South Carolina in 1963 (th first integrated college in that state). If you are talking about public schools, not all southern public schools were integrated by 1960, though some were.

integration: 1954 to 1963 — FactMonster.com

Public schools, since those are the two examples I used. Colleges were held to a less stringent requirement under the desegregation laws.
 
Public schools, since those are the two examples I used. Colleges were held to a less stringent requirement under the desegregation laws.

A lot of schools in the south... an the north too were segregated, but not necessarily by design, more by geographical proximity. Swann v. Charlotte-Mecklenburg Board of Education attempted to remedy this by busing students to integrate the schools. North Carolina was where this case originated prior to going to the Supreme Court.
 
A lot of schools in the south... an the north too were segregated, but not necessarily by design, more by geographical proximity. Swann v. Charlotte-Mecklenburg Board of Education attempted to remedy this by busing students to integrate the schools. North Carolina was where this case originated prior to going to the Supreme Court.

Oh I realize this, but in the major cities and rural areas of the south it was done under gun point with federal troops in the 1950's. It didn't occur fully until the 1970's in the north. That was my entire point about making the south pay for leaving the Union, while ignoring the racist past of non-southern states. It ties in nicely on why redneck is perfectly acceptable as a bigoted remark while all others are off-limits.
 
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Prove me wrong with documented facts. I'm waiting for you to give us actual documented proof and not empty rhetoric.

http://www.law.umaryland.edu/marshall/usccr/documents/pressrel67.pdf

There's your proof.

Also this story makes me sad to be from Georgia, where they are still having segregated proms in this one county. Also in the story it states that the school wasn't integrated until 1971.

http://www.nytimes.com/2009/05/24/magazine/24prom-t.html?pagewanted=1&_r=1
 
Oh I realize this, but in the major cities and rural areas of the south it was done under gun point with federal troops in the 1950's. It didn't occur fully until the 1970's in the north. That was my entire point about making the south pay for leaving the Union, while ignoring the racist past of non-southern states. It ties in nicely on why redneck is perfectly acceptable as a bigoted remark while all others are off-limits.

It was done under gun-point because of the level of resistance to it. And I think Your Star just offered you proof that you are wrong about southern schools being desegregated in the '50s.
 
It was done under gun-point because of the level of resistance to it. And I think Your Star just offered you proof that you are wrong about southern schools being desegregated in the '50s.

Yes, she did and I thank her for that. It still doesn't change my point about redneck being okay to use as a bigoted remark while others are not allowed.
 
Yes, she did and I thank her for that. It still doesn't change my point about redneck being okay to use as a bigoted remark while others are not allowed.

OK... I agree with you. So, we agree that southern schools were NOT desegregated by the end of the 50's and that redneck is a racist remark against poor southern whites.
 
OK... I agree with you. So, we agree that southern schools were NOT desegregated by the end of the 50's and that redneck is a racist remark against poor southern whites.

Correction.

Any southern whites. At least coming from people even so close as this very forum who generalize the entire south (not just the poor) as rednecks.
 
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