Not according to the definitions of the term...Originally Posted by catz
I agree. Misusing the term weakens it. I do not support hyperbolic misuse of terminology for the purpose of inflaming an emotional response to some political issue. Other terms that are frequently misused include hate speech, racism, and terrorism.
Without having read this thread (as my lazyness level is high at this time), I state the following:
IMO, "Slavery" is defined as "involuntary service/labor".
Sometimes I think we're alone. Sometimes I think we're not. In either case, the thought is staggering. ~ R. Buckminster Fuller
Slavery is when someone takes a machine gun, actual or metaphorical, and denies you the fruits of your labor for the benefit of himself or others and with no measurable benefit to yourself.
The classic example is the black slaves owned by Democrat Jefferson Davis. Except Ol' Jeff didn't have a machine gun.
The modern example is the American worker who gets taxed and taxed and taxed so his masters can bail out AIG, GM, Greece, Europe, the Universe, and none of which will ever benefit him.
Going by the preponderance of the evidence, your point is not valid.
As most of the other posters have shown, it is clearly subjective from person to person.
Got evidence that says "The institution of slavery requires that people be owned as property." that is a statement of fact? No, you don't because their "is no general consensus."
Last edited by Black Dog; 05-10-10 at 09:45 PM.
No Lives Matter