View Poll Results: Should traffic fines and other fines be based on the income one makes?

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  • Yes

    40 35.40%
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Thread: Should traffic fines and other fines be based on the income the offender makes?

  1. #31
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    Re: Should traffic fines and other fines be based on the income the offender makes?

    Quote Originally Posted by jamesrage View Post
    Those crimes are not punishable with fines and those punishments apply regardless of the income one makes and have the same effect regardless of the income one makes.
    Well to some extent one accused of murder who can afford better representation has a better odd of getting off.

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    Re: Should traffic fines and other fines be based on the income the offender makes?

    Quote Originally Posted by jamesrage View Post
    Not if you charged the same percentage. For example you make speeding 1% of income,so someone making 20,000 pays $200 and someone making $2,000,000 pays $20,000. We live in a country that has a graduated income tax system and as far as I know no judge has struck it down, so surely a flat percentage fine would be deemed constitutional even if some liberal jacked it up to a graduated percentage system.
    Doesn't anyone see that when the rich are treated unfairly it hurts employees and consumers? That $20,000 you want to charge for a speeding ticket is $20,000 that will be passed on to employees (no bonuses, raises etc.) The consumer (raise prices to recoup the loss) doesn't go on vacation (hurts, hotel staff, travel agents etc.) Doesn't buy a new car (hurts auto workers) Believe me, he won't say "oh well I guess I'm just $20,000 poorer. He will cut back somewhere.
    I've never worked for a poor person. If people really want to be put back to work, we need to stop demonizing and stealing from the people who pay the wages and the ones who spend money on luxeries.
    By the way, I am poor, but I believe in freedom and the right to pursue happiness. I don't begrudge others money they have worked for.

  3. #33
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    Re: Should traffic fines and other fines be based on the income the offender makes?

    Fines for breaking the law (like speeding) AREN'T suppose to be affordable - it's the extreme sharp cost of them that's suppose to be a preventative and keep people from doing it.

    If people are shelling out hundreds at a pop - over and over - then obviously they aren't learning their lesson and the fines need to go UP for repeat offenders.

    But, yes, I think - since sharp fines SHOULD be a deterrent - then it should be based loosely on income.

    Starting at an uncomfortable rate for those who are poor - where it would be a possible deterrent (where it is now is probably fine, honestly) - and going UP.

    As long as things aren't adjusted DOWN for anyone then I think it's fine.
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  4. #34
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    Re: Should traffic fines and other fines be based on the income the offender makes?

    If our system is designed where punishments are supposed to act as a detterent, then yes, the fines should be a set % of income.

    If everyone receives the same percentage of fine, then everyone is being treated equally under the law, regardless of the actual monetary amount.

    A person making 20 K a year gets a fine of 0.5% of their income, and the monetary value of this fine is $100. A person making 200 K a year gets the same fine of 0.5% and the monetary amount is $1000. They both received the same punishment.

    However, if both people are fined $100, one is getting fined 0.5% of his income while the other is getting fined 0.05% of his income. Obviously the person being fined 0.5% of his income had a harsher penalty than the person being fined 0.05% of his income.

    Thus, it makes perfect sense to start handing out equal punishments.
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    Re: Should traffic fines and other fines be based on the income the offender makes?

    Quote Originally Posted by Barbbtx View Post
    Doesn't anyone see that when the rich are treated unfairly
    treated unfairly? If 10% of a poor persons income has to go to a fine why shouldn't 10% of a wealthy persons income go to a fine?

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    Re: Should traffic fines and other fines be based on the income the offender makes?

    The honest truth is that our punitive fining system is a graduated system that has an inverse relationship to income.

    It's the exact opposite of tax rates. Poor people receive harsher fines than rich people do. Anyone who supports a flat tax should also support a flat fining system.
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    Re: Should traffic fines and other fines be based on the income the offender makes?

    Quote Originally Posted by jamesrage View Post
    Should traffic fines and other fines be based on the income the offender makes?

    Yes, no ,maybe?
    Yes. A $50 fine won't deter a millionaire.

  8. #38
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    Re: Should traffic fines and other fines be based on the income the offender makes?

    Quote Originally Posted by winston53660 View Post
    Well to some extent one accused of murder who can afford better representation has a better odd of getting off.
    Is a rich person who sentence to life in prison for murder treated any different than a poor person who is sentence to life in prison?
    "A nation can survive its fools, and even the ambitious. But it cannot survive treason from within. An enemy at the gates is less formidable, for he is known and carries his banner openly. But the traitor moves amongst those within the gate freely, his sly whispers rustling through all the alleys, heard in the very halls of government itself. For the traitor appears not a traitor; he speaks in accents familiar to his victims, and he wears their face and their arguments, he appeals to the baseness that lies deep in the hearts of all men. He rots the soul of a nation, he works secretly and unknown in the night to undermine the pillars of the city, he infects the body politic so that it can no longer resist. A murder is less to fear"

    Cicero Marcus Tullius

  9. #39
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    Re: Should traffic fines and other fines be based on the income the offender makes?

    Quote Originally Posted by Tucker Case View Post
    If our system is designed where punishments are supposed to act as a detterent, then yes, the fines should be a set % of income.

    If everyone receives the same percentage of fine, then everyone is being treated equally under the law, regardless of the actual monetary amount.

    A person making 20 K a year gets a fine of 0.5% of their income, and the monetary value of this fine is $100. A person making 200 K a year gets the same fine of 0.5% and the monetary amount is $1000. They both received the same punishment.

    However, if both people are fined $100, one is getting fined 0.5% of his income while the other is getting fined 0.05% of his income.Obviously the person being fined 0.5% of his income had a harsher penalty than the person being fined 0.05% of his income.

    Thus, it makes perfect sense to start handing out equal punishments.
    You messed that part up.
    "A nation can survive its fools, and even the ambitious. But it cannot survive treason from within. An enemy at the gates is less formidable, for he is known and carries his banner openly. But the traitor moves amongst those within the gate freely, his sly whispers rustling through all the alleys, heard in the very halls of government itself. For the traitor appears not a traitor; he speaks in accents familiar to his victims, and he wears their face and their arguments, he appeals to the baseness that lies deep in the hearts of all men. He rots the soul of a nation, he works secretly and unknown in the night to undermine the pillars of the city, he infects the body politic so that it can no longer resist. A murder is less to fear"

    Cicero Marcus Tullius

  10. #40
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    Re: Should traffic fines and other fines be based on the income the offender makes?

    Quote Originally Posted by jamesrage View Post
    Is a rich person who sentence to life in prison for murder treated any different than a poor person who is sentence to life in prison?
    Does a wealthy person have better odds of getting off on appeal?

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